220+ Electrotherapy Physiotherapy free MCQs

Electro therapy MCQs

Electro therapy MCQs practice mode

What is the international color code of the active, neutral and earthed wires?
a. red/brown is active, black/blue is neutral and yellow/green is earthed
b. black/blue is active, red/brown is neutral and yellow/green is earthed
c. red/brown is active, yellow/green is neutral and red/brown is earthed
d. yellow/green is active, black/blue is neutral and red/brown is earthed

2. Which of the following factor will cause electric shock?
a. fault such that an exposed part of the apparatus becomes live
b. a person makes contact with the live part
c. the person is earthed
d. all of the above

3. Which of the following will prevent electric shock?
a. use of isolated transformer, so that the current applied to the patient become earth free
b. incorporation of a high sensitivity core-balanced relay device/apparatus should have its own fuse
c. the patient and apparatus should be kept distant from earthed objects e.g. metal furniture, water pipelines etc.
d. all of the above

4. Which of the following is/are the effects of electric shock?
a. ventricular fibrillation
b. burn
c. muscle rupture, avulsion fracture or paralysis
d. all of the above

5. Which of the following factor/s determines effects of electric shock?
a. types of current, AC is more dangerous than DC
b. duration of current exposure and intensity
c. path of current through the body
d. all of the above

6. What are the resistances of the dry and wet skin?
a. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 5,000 ohm respectively
b. 100,000 – 600,000 ohm and 1,000 ohm respectively
c. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 10,000 ohm respectively
d. 10, 00,000 – 60, 00,000 ohm and 10,000 ohms respectively

7. The skin resistance can be reduced before applying electrical stimulation _.
a. washing the skin by soap and warm water and cleaning by applying spirit or alcohol
b. massage the part in elevation if edema is present
c. soak the part with normal saline
d. all of the above

8. Sequence of operation of electrotherapy equipments is_____.
a. M-mains and machine on, C-clock on, P-power on
b. P-power on, M-mains and machine on, C-clock on
c. C-clock on, P-power on, M-mains and machine on
d. M-mains and machine on, P-power on, C-clock on

9. Burn in electrotherapy occurs due to___.
a. overdose
b. inability to dissipate heat due to peripheral vascular disease
c. loss of sensation
d. all of the above

10. Exacerbation of symptoms of symptoms following electrotherapy occurs due to___.
a. Acute inflammation/infection
b. area of increased fluid tension e.g. edema, effusion
c. haemmorrhagic conditions
d. all of the above

11. Electrical activity in the cells of the body can be described as
a. Conduction current
b. Convection current
c. Both conduction and convection
d. Radiation

12. Electrical activity of body is lower than the electrical circuits because
a. It is dependent on movement of ions
b. Pathways are shorter
c. The mass of ion is smaller
d. All of the above

13. Negativity of resting membrane potential is due to
a. Potassium is more permeable than sodium
b. Three sodium ejected for two potassium
c. Potassium is brought into the cell and sodium expelled out of the cell
d. All of the above

14. How much change of action potential can trigger a depolarization
a. 5 – 10 mv
b. 10 – 15 mv
c. 15 – 20 mv
d. >25 mv

15. Usually various pulsed currents cause
a. Chemical changes
b. Stimulate excitable tissue
c. Heating in the tissue
d. Changes in growth and repair in tissue

16. Before applying any electrical modality, the therapist should reason out
a. Whether the modality has the ability to achieve the intended effect?
b. Is it safe?
c. Is this the best modality for the particular effect
d. All of the above

17. The essential for electromagnetic induction is
a. A conductor
b. Magnetic lines of forces
c. Movement of the conductor and magnetic lines of force relatively
d. All of the above

18. To prevent the occurrence of eddy currents
a. An insulator is used
b. A spherical conductor is used
c. A laminated conductor is used
d. None of the above

19. A choke coil is used
a. To even out the variations of intensity of current
b. To prevent the flow of high frequency current and allow the flow of low frequency current
c. (a) & (b)
d. None of the above

20. The unit of capacitance is
a. Ampere
b. Volt
c. Farad
d. None of the above

21. The low frequency current is up to
a. 1000Hz
b. 50Hz
c. 100Hz
d. None of the above

22. The duration of condenser discharge depends on —-
a. Capacitance & resistance
b. Intensity of current
c. Voltage
d. None

23. Russian current is
a. Low frequency
b. Medium frequency
c. High frequency
d. None of the above

24. All electromagnetic radiations have
a. Same velocity
b. Same wavelength
c. Same frequency
d. None of the above

25. The name of the coil used to produce faradic current in past was
a. Choke coil
b. Smart bristow faradic coil
c. Induction coil
d. None of above

26. Pulse ration is the ratio of current or voltage required
a. By 110 ms & 30 ms pulse
b. 1 ms & 30 ms pulse
c. 1 ms & 10 ms pulse
d. 1 ms & 100 ms pulse

27. Faradic current is _.
a. An alternating current
b. A direct current
c. Interrupted current
d. Modified current

28. Galvanic current is _.
a. An alternating current
b. A direct current
c. Interrupted current
d. Modified current

29._ current is used for the stimulation of innervated muscles.
a. Faradic
b. Faradic type
c. Surged faradic
d. Interrupted galvanic

30. Faradic current when applied
a. Recruit type I fibre followed by type II
b. Recruit type II followed by type I
c. Recruit type I alone
d. Recruit type II alone

31. Electric pulse which will stimulate a nerve
a. Rapid rising & duration less than 1ms
b. Slow rising & duration less than 1ms
c. Rapid rising & duration less than 100 ms
d. None of the above

32. Which of the followings is an absolute contraindication for electrical stimulation
a. Pace maker.
b. Insensitive skin.
c. Unconscious patient.
d. Ischemic heart disease.

33. Which stimulator is more comfortable, safe but less accurate ?
a. Constant current
b. Constant voltage
c. Both
d. None of the above

34. The motor point of a muscle is found at
a. Proximal 2/3rd and distal one third of muscle belly
b. Proximal 1/4th with distal 3/4th of muscle belly
c. Proximal 1/3rd and distal 2/3rd of muscle belly
d. 50% of muscle length

35. Nerve accommodation can be avoided by ——-
a. Surging the current
b. Using varying current
c. Using a varying current that rises and falls suddenly
d. None of the above

36. The electrode which can easily depolarize the membrane of a nerve is __
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Called indifferent electrode
d. None of the above

37. The technique to stretch adhesion in a muscle is called
a. Faradism under pressure
b. Faradic foot bath
c. Faradism under tension
d. None of the above

38. Due to acetylcholine hyperactivity———
a. The rheobase of enervated tissue is less
b. The rheobase of innervated tissue is less
c. For innervated and denervated tissue it is same
d. None of the above

39. The appropriate current to know tendon rupture——-
a. Faradic current
b. TENS
c. Galvanic current
d. None of the above

40. 1 ms pulse of 1mA current would have
a. 1 coulomb
b. 1 coulomb
c. 1m coulomb
d. None of the above

41. In a dynamic application of current which type of stimulation is preferable?
a. Constant current
b. Constant voltage
c. Both are preferred
d. None of them preferred

42. Long duration current can have a pulse duration
a. >1sec
b. >1m sec
c. 100 m sec
d. 1 sec

43. Accommodation pulses can stimulate
a. Sensory nerve
b. Motor nerve
c. Muscles
d. All of the above

44. Short duration currents have duration of
a. < 1 m sec
b. < 1  sec
c. < 10 m sec
d. < 10  sec

45. Pulses of TENS are usually
a. Uniphasic
b. Biphasic
c. Biphasic with even charge
d. Biphasic, even charge with equal or unequal pulse shape in both direction

46. A fibers stimulated by
a. High TENS
b. Low TENS
c. Both
d. None of the above

47. Non-myelinated fiber is
a. A
b. A
c. A
d. C

48. Depolarization of nerve occurs when the current is beyond threshold value about _.
a. 1 mv
b. 10 mv
c. 100 mv
d. 1 v

49. In a rectangular pulse rheobase current a pulse duration of __ can initiate a nerve impulse
a. < 1 m sec
b. < 0.5 m sec
c. < 10 m sec
d. < 100 m sec

50. Nociceptors are stimulated with a current intensity
a. More than that stimulates sensory nerve
b. More than that stimulate a motor nerve
c. More than that cause tingling
d. Less than that requires to produce a twitch

51. If the intensity remains constant at what frequency of current, the muscle contraction may decrease
a. < 100 Hz
b. 100 Hz
c. 1000 Hz
d. < 1000 Hz

52. What is the optimal frequency for muscle contraction?
a. 10 – 20 Hz
b. 20 – 30 Hz
c. 30 – 40 Hz
d. 40 – 60 Hz

53. Fast twitch muscle fibers can be stimulated at a frequency of
a. 10 – 20 Hz
b. 30 – 40 Hz
c. 50 – 150 Hz
d. 200 Hz

54. For a pulse duration of 1 ms what can be the maximum frequency for nerve depolarization
a. 100 Hz
b. 500 Hz
c. 1000Hz
d. None of the above

55. Rhythmical 1 – 100 Hz interferential current may be helpful for
a. Muscle contraction
b. Pain relief
c. Reduction of edema
d. None of the above

56. Benefit of Russian current over faradic stimulation is
a. Better pain relieving effect
b. Covers larger stimulation area
c. Stimulation of deep muscles
d. Better facilitator of healing

57. Which is a better electrotherapy modality for stress incontinence?
a. TENS
b. Faradic Stimulation
c. IFT
d. I.D.C

58. Skin impedance is
a. High for shorter pulse duration
b. High for longer pulse duration
c. Not affected by pulse duration
d. High for high frequency current

59. Which one among the following is true for voluntary and electrical stimulation?
a. Voluntary contraction stimulates type I but electrical stimulation stimulates type II fibres
b. Voluntary stimulates type II but electrical stimulation type I
c. There is gradual recruitment in electrical stimulation
d. There is synchronized response in voluntary contraction

60. In the pre-mode application of IFT
a. Electrode placement is not easy
b. Under the electrode current is more
c. Difficult to accurately reach the affected area
d. Strong contraction can not be achieved

61, What is the normal difference in current intensity between the two sides?
a. < 2 mA
b. < 4 mA
c. < 6 mA
d. < 8 mA

62. Beyond the conduction block in case of neurapraxia what should be the difference of current between two sides?
a. < 2 mA
b. < 4 mA
c. < 6 mA
d. < 8 mA

63. In unilateral nerve injury, when the required current intensity for stimulation is 10 – 20 times of opposite side normal muscle then what might be the condition?
a. Neurapraxia
b. Axonotemesis of few nerve fibers
c. Axonotomesis of all most all nerve fibers
d. Neurotemesis

64. What might be the strength of current required to stimulate a muscle with pulse of 10ms duration
a. Same as required for 30 ms pulse
b. Same as required for 1 ms pulse
c. Twice as 30 m sec pulse
d. Half of 1 ms pulse

65. The rheobase is
a. Unchanged in a denervated muscle
b. Increases in a denervated muscle
c. Decreases in a denervated muscle
d. First increase then decrease

66. Which are among the following is correct for SD curve plotting
a. Constant current machine more comfortable
b. Constant voltage machine is more comfortable
c. Constant current comfortable & less accurate
d. Constant voltage comfortable and less accurate

67. SD curve can
a. Distinguish between innervation & denervation
b. Distinguish between innervated and denervated but can not quantify the state of innervation
c. Distinguish innervated and denervated and quantify the state of innervation
d. None

68. Chronaxie for denervated muscle is
a. < 1 ms b. < 10 ms c. > 10 ms
d. > 1 ms

69. Rheobase is
a. Maximum tolerable current for a nerve impulse at long duration
b. Minimum current for a nerve impulse at short duration
c. Minimum current for a nerve impulse at long duration
d. None of the above

70. Utilization time is
a. Same as chronaxie
b. Pulse duration at rheobase current
c. Shortest duration of pulse at rheobase current
d. Longest duration of pulse at rheobase current

71. EMG reveals action potential of
a. Muscle
b. Motor unit
c. Nerve fiber
d. None of the above

72.Which electrodes are used for more accurate EMG?
a. Surface electrodes
b. Needle electrode
c. Both
d. None

73. The physiological changes that occur during bio-feedback is due to
a. Unknown pathway
b. known pathway
c. Both
d. None of the above

74. In EMG activities studied are
a. Insertional , spontaneous
b. Insert ional & exert ional
c. Spontaneous & exert ional
d. Insert ional, spontaneous & exert ional

75. Which is a normal spontaneous activity?
a. Fibrillation
b. Positive sharp wave
c. End phase spike
d. None of the above

76. Which is not true for positive sharp wave?
a. Diphasic potential
b. Abrupt positive initial deflection
c. Abrupt negative delay
d. All of the above

77. What is not false about denervation potential?
a. They appear 2-5 weeks after nerve injury
b. They are present in primary muscle disease
c. Includes fibrillation , fasciculation
d. All of the above

78. Which is true for fasciculation?
a. Spontaneous firing of the action potential of single muscle fibre
b. None volitional random contraction of group of muscle fibre
c. Duration 1-5 msec
d. Frequency 1-50 Hz

79. The medium frequency current create a numbness, for which patient perceives a reduction in the intensity of current, is known as
a. Amplitude inhibition
b. Current modulation
c. Widensky inhibition
d. None of the above

80. The chemical burn expected to occur due to passage of DC current into the body is likely to occur at
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Both the electrodes
d. Where acids are formed

81. While applying DC, the important parameter for therapeutic purpose is
a. Current intensity
b. Circuit resistance
c. Current density
d. The duration of application

82. In iontophoresis the total number of ions introduced into the tissue proportional to
a. Current
b. Current density
c. Time of application
d. Both b & c

83. For iontophoresis the positively charged ions should be kept at
a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Any electrode
d. Both the electrodes

84. The factor/factors important for penetration of ion into the tissue is/are
a. Specific conductivity of solution
b. pH of solution
c. Precipitation formed by ions
d. All of the above

85. The mechanism of wound healing by electrical stimulation is supposed to be due to
a. Skin battery
b. Enhanced DNA and protein synthesis
c. The migration of epithelial and connective tissue cells
d. All of the above

86. What should be the sequence of application of current for an infected wound?
a. Cathode on wound, < 1ma current, change of polarity of electrode b. Anode on wound, < 1ma current, change of polarity of electrode c. Cathode on wound, > 1ma current, change of polarity of electrodes
d. Anode on wound, > 1ma current, change of polarity of electrode

87. The duration of anesthesia effect by application of anesthetic agent through iontophoresis is
a. 2 minutes
b. < 5 minutes
c. Within 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes

88. What is the best therapeutic use of iontophoresis?
a. As local anesthesia
b. To apply antibiotics
c. To apply anti inflammatory drug
d. For treatment of hyper hydrosis

89. Which is not true for iontophoresis
a. Eliminates first pass metabolism
b. Uncontrolled drug delivery
c. Avoid pain that accompanies injection
d. Decrease risk of infection.

90. Which iontophoresis is used for hyper hydro sis
a. Metallic silver
b. Glycopyrronium bromide
c. Xanthenes nicotinamide
d. Vinc alkaloid

91. Zinc iontophoresis is used for
a. Neutrogena pain
b. Ischemic ulcers
c. Non healing ulcers
d. Anti – inflammatory effect

92. Fungal skin infection can be treated by
a. Zinc iontophoresis
b. Dexamethasone iontophoresis
c. Copper iontophoresis
d. Iodine iontophoresis

93. The principle of applying direct current to the body is
a. There should be uniform current density
b. Provide a complete circuit
c. The indifferent electrode size should be more than 2 ½ times the active electrode placed at therapeutic
d. All of the above

94. The number of moles of a given ion that will be released by passage of current directly proportional to
a. Amperes of charge
b. Ejection time
c. Transport number
d. a & b
e. All of the above

95. Factors that affect the iontophoretic transport are
a. Concentration of various ions in the solution
b. Vehicle pH
c. Current strength
d. Solute concentration
e. All of the above

96. Among the following which is not true for application of iontophoresis
a. Low risk of infection
b. Enhanced drug penetration
c. Less systemic absorption
d. Maximum skin irritation

97.For the edema reduction the following ion is used
a. Acetate
b. Copper
c. Hyaluronidase
d. None of the above

98. What can be the source for iontophoresis in hyper hydro sis
a. Iodine
b. Acetic acid
c. Zinc
d. Tap water

99. A typical iontophoretic drug delivery dose is ………….
a. 20 mA- min
b. 40 mA –min
c. 60 mA – min
d. 80 mA – min

100.If DC is used for pain relief the dosage varies with
a. Diagnosis of the condition
b. Skin pigmentation
c. Polarity of electrode on treatment site
d. All of the above

101.Therapist should be cautious to treat patients with iontophoresis if they give history of
a. Skin reaction to histamine
b. Dizziness
c. Chronic headache
d. All

102.For Calcific deposit , the ion selected is
a. Copper 500 – 600 C
b. Acetate
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

103.While treating hyperhydrosis in adults initially the dosage should be
a. >100 mA min
b. <100 mA min
c. 200 mA min
d. 300 mA min

104.Chemical reaction increases by about ———for each 10C increase of tissue temperature
a. 10 %
b. 20 %
c. 14 %
d. 13 %

105.High frequency current when applied to the body
a. Produces motor stimulation
b. Produces sensory stimulation
c. Produces heat
d. None of the above

106.Heat is produced in the body by the effect of __
a. Low Frequency Current
b. Medium Frequency current
c. High Frequency Current
d. None of above

107.Which is not a deep heating modality?
a. US
b. SWD
c. MWD
d. HP

108.Cyclotherm apparatus is a – —
a. Heating modality
b. Cooling modality
c. Both a& b
d. None

109.The temperature of PWB is
a. 30- 40 C
b. 40- 50 C
c. 25- 55 C
d. None of the above

110.PWB is comfortable at 500 C temperatures, whereas water at 500 C temperature causes damage to skin, why?
a. Low specific heat of PWB
b. High specific heat of PWB
c. High viscosity of PWB
d. Latent heat of fusion of PWB

111.Region of thermal comfort is between
a. 450 – 50 C
b. 50 – 350 C
c. 150 – 250 C
d. 50 – 450 C

112.The mode of heat transfer by hot pack, whirl pool bath, paraffin wax bath is___.
a. conduction and convention
b. conduction and radiation
c. radiation and convention
d. conduction, radiation and convention

113.The Hydro collator packs are heated up to ———— temperature
a. 500 – 600 C
b. 750 – 80 C
c. 400 – 500 C
d. Non of the above

114.Which is superficial heating modality?
a. Hydro collator, Wax bath, Hydrotherapy & Ultra sound.
b. Electric heat pad, Fluido therapy, Short wave diathermy & Infra red
c. Hot pack, Wax bath, Hydrotherapy & Infrared
d. Microwave, Hot pack, Hydro therapy & Hot water bath

115.Heat is used prior to passive stretching exercises because of
a. Analgesic effect, reduction of viscosity and decrease collagen extensibility ans:b
b. Analgesic effect, reduction of viscosity and increase collagen extensibility
c. Analgesic effect, increase of viscosity and increase collagen extensibility
d. Analgesic effect, increase of viscosity, sedative effect and reduction of muscle spasm

116.The loosing of heat from body by sweating through
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. None of the above

117. Heat is regulated by —–
     a. Shivering
     b. Brown adipose tissue
     c. Sweating
     d. All of the above
118. Treatment by means of natural sunlight is called___.
     a. Actinotherapy
     b. Photo therapy
     c. Heliotherapy
     d. Radiating therapy

119.For which one among the following specific heat is highest
a. Human body
b. Water
c. Blood
d. Muscle

120.In wax bath the temperature is kept at a pre set temperature by using
a. Alcohol in glass thermometer
b. Thermostat
c. Thermister
d. None of the above

121.There is a circadian variation of body temperature of about
a. 1 degree C
b. 2 degree C
c. 1 degree F
d. degree F

122.Indiba treatment is modern version of
a. Short-wave diathermy
b. Medium- wave diathermy
c. Long- wave diathermy
d. Inductothermy

123.When high frequency current is transmitted into the tissue , the molecules
a. Vibrate
b. Oscillate
c. Distort
d. None of the above

124.The tissue that accumulates maximum heat with condenser field application of SWD is
a. skin.
b. Fat.
c. Muscle.
d. Blood.

125.The tissue heated most with cable method of SWD is
a. Periosteum.
b. Blood.
c. Bone.
d. Muscle.

126.Dissipation of heat in SWD is maximized due to
a. Evaporation of sweat.
b. Air circulation.
c. Increased blood flow.
d. Contraction of muscle.

127.In SWD most uniform field in the tissues is given by
a. Narrow spacing
b. Wide spacing
c. Medium spacing
d. Even spacing

129.Therapeutic frequency of SWD is
a. 27.12 K Hz
b. 27.12 MHz
c. 27.12 G Hz
d. None of the above

130.Sinuses are treated by SWD using __ method.
a. coplanar
b. contra planar
c. cross fire
d. monode

131.The beneficial effects of PSWD is in accordance with
a. Vant Hoffs rule
b. Joules law
c. Arndt – Schultz law
d. None of the above

132.The frequency at which there is oscillation in the multivibrator circuit is
a. f =1/LC
b. 1/2 Π LC
c. 1/2 Π L
d. 1/2 Π √LC

133.During SWD application the treated part is included in the
a. Oscillator circuit
b. Resonator circuit
c. Variable capacitor
d. None of the above

134.The depth of penetration of MWD lies
a. Between SWD and Infra red.
b. Between SWD and PWB.
c. Between SWD and US
d. None of the above

135.Which of the following is the intermediate heating modality?
a. IRR
b. MWD
c. SWD
d. US

136.The approximate half value depth of penetration of Microwave is
a. 6 cm
b. 4 cm
c. 3 cm
d. 1.5 cm

137.The depth of penetration of Microwaves is
a. Greater than Shortwaves
b. Lesser than Infrared
c. Greater than Infrared & Lesser than Shortwaves
d. None of the above

137.Microwaves are absorbed mostly in
a. Fat & fibrous tissues
b. Bone
c. Blood vessels
d. Nerves

138.Superluminous diodes in Laser Therapy is characterized by ———.
a. Monochromatic, Collimated, Coherent
b. Nonmonochromatic, Collimated, Coherent
c. Monochromatic, Collimated, non – Coherent
d. Monochromatic, non-Collimated, Coherent

139.LASER produces visible as well as infrared radiation, while infra red is strongly absorbed by
a. Water
b. Haemoglobin
c. Melanin
d. Nervous tissue

140.What would be the energy density of laser therapy if mean power= 10mw, beam area = 1 cm & treatment time 30 sec
a. 1 J/cm
b. 3 J/cm.
c. 0.3 J/cm.
d. J/cm.

141.Which is not a neuropharmacological effect of laser for pain modulation?
a. alteration of serotonin metabolism
b. effect on collinergic system
c. opiate mediated
d. non opiate mediated

142.For tennis elbow the laser dose is
a. 1.5 J/cm2
b. 5 J/cm2
c. 16-24 J/cm2
d. 8-12 J/cm2

143.If pulse energy is1 J, repetition rate is10Hz, energy (laser) would be
a. 600J
b. 60 J
c. 10 J
d. 1 J

144.Movement of drug through skin into subcutaneous tissue under the influence of Ultrasound is
a. Iontophoresis
b. Phonophoresis
c. Both
d. None of the above

145.Ultrasound absorption is least in
a. Fat
b. Blood
c. Skin
d. Bone

146.Which is not contraindication to US?
a. Radiotherapy
b. Haemoarthrosis
c. First week after bony injury
d. After laminectomy

147.Cavitation is
a. Thermal effects of US
b. Non- thermal effects of US
c. All the above
d. None of the above

148.The characteristic of coupling medium are ——-.
a. High transmission properties, high viscosity, chemically inactive ans: a
b. High transmission properties, high velocity, bubble formation
c. Hypo allergic character, relative sterility and more difference in acoustic impedance between tissue and media
d. Low viscosity, low transmission, high absorption properties.

149.The therapeutic range of Ultra-Sound is
a. 1-5 Hz
b. 5-10 Hz
c. 0..5-5 MHz
d. 0.5-100MHz

150.Pulsed treatment of Ultra-Sound is given
a. For thermal effect
b. For non- thermal effect
c. Higher intensities can be given safely
d. For chronic disease conditions

151.In ultrasound
a. The energy travels as waves.
b. The energy pass as molecule
c. The energy travels as matter
d. None of the above

152.When the piezo electric crystal change shape the parameter produced is
a. Amplitude of wave
b. Frequency of the waves
c. On and off pulses
d. Wavelength of the wave

153.The velocity of ultra sound in a medium depends upon its
a. Density
b. Elasticity
c. Both density and elasticity
d. Neither density nor elasticity.

154.What is the length of fresnel zone in 3 cm diameter transducer working at 1MHz (wave length 1.5mm),
a. 10 cm
b. 4.5 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 6 cm

155.In therapeutic ultrasound the energy travels
a. More in periphery of beam
b. More in centre of the beam
c. Uniform around the beam
d. There is changing over from periphery to centre of beam.

156.Absorption of ultrasound is greatest in tissues with
a. Greatest water content and least structural protein content
b. Greatest water and structural protein content
c. Lowest water & structural protein content
d. Greatest structural protein & lowest water content.

157.In the body the absorption of ultrasound is maximum in
a. blood
b. nerve
c. skin
d. bone

158.Attenuation of ultrasound is due to
a. Reflection and refraction
b. Absorption and scattering
c. Reflection & absorption
d. Scattering & refraction

159.For an ultrasound application output of 1W/cm2 how much will be the approximate temperature
a. 10c/min
b. 20c/min
c. 30c/min
d. 50c/min

160.For pulsed ultrasound application if the pulse length is 2ms and the interval is 8ms. What is the duty cycle.
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. None of the above

161.The purpose of application of pulsed ultrasound is to
a. Dissipate the heat in the interval
b. To produce higher mechanical effect
c. To lessen the thermal effect
d. To lessen thermal effect and increase the mechanical effect.

162. What can produce transient cavitation?
     a. High intensity
     b. High frequency
     c. Continuous mode of ultrasound
     d. None of the above.

163.In the acute stage ultrasound has a
a. Anti inflammatory effect
b. Pro inflammatory effect
c. Vasodilatory & washing out effect
d. Pain relieving effect

164.In the granulation stage U.S can
a. Promote collagen synthesis
b. Enhance growth of capillaries
c. Helps in proliferation of fibroblast
d. All of the above

165.For stress fracture, therapeutic U.S is
a. Therapeutic
b. Diagnostic
c. Diagnostic & therapeutic
d. Preventive

166.U.S may not be effective in
a. Soft tissue injury
b. Bony injury
c. Improving muscle blood flow
d. Chronic pain.

167.Therapeutic ultrasound uses
a. Near field
b. Far field
c. Both near and far field
d. More near field less far field

168.The ultrasound energy is more when
a. Frequency is high
b. Amplitude is high
c. Frequency and amplitude both are high
d. Frequency low and amplitude is high

169.The relationship between penetration and absorption of ultrasound energy is
a. Direct
b. Inverse
c. Linear
d. None of the above

170.The approximate average half value depth of ultrasound of 1 M Hz frequency is
a. 100 mm
b. 65 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 25 mm

171.The approximate average half value depth of ultrasound of 3 M Hz frequency is
a. 70 mm
b. 60 mm
c. 30 mm
d. 20 mm

172.Excessive dose of ultrasound causes periosteal pain which is mainly due to
a. Absorption
b. Scattering
c. Penetration
d. Shear wave

173.During ultrasound application the head is moved to————.
a. Smooth out the irregularities of near field
b. Reduce irregularities of absorption
c. Both a & b
d. None

174.By pulsing the ultrasound wave
a. Spatial average intensity is reduced
b. Time average intensity is reduced
c. Spatial peak temporal peak is reduced
d. None of the above

175.To have effect on intracellular calcium system the ultrasound duty cycle should be
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

176.The Maximum penetration depth of IR is ——- .
a. 3000 nm
b. 1000 nm
c. 700 nm
d. 15000 nm

177.Depth of penetration of infrared of 3000nm wavelength is
a. 1 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 0.1 mm
d. 2 mm

178.Infra-red has a strong effect on
a. Bone
b. Fat
c. Skin
d. Non of the above

179.Infra red radiation has the wave length in between
a. Ultra violate and Visible radiation
b. Micro wave diathermy and Visible radiation.
c. Micro wave diathermy and Ultra violate radiation.
d. Micro wave diathermy and Ultrasound

180.Penetration depth in Infra-red
a. 100% infra-red absorbed
b. 50% infra-red absorbed
c. 63% infra-red absorbed
d. 83% infra-red absorbed

181.Infra red of 1000nm wave length can penetrate up to
a. Epidermis.
b. Dermis.
c. Muscle.
d. Bone

182.In infrared radiation the frequency is
a. Directly proportional to the temperature
b. Inversely proportional to the temperature
c. Does not have any relation with temperature
d. Directly proportional to the shape of the object

183.Human body emits
a. Infrared
b. Microwave
c. Ultrasound
d. None of the above

184.Among the following electrotherapy modalities which is the right sequence of decreasing frequency?
a. Infra red, ultrasound, short wave , interferential
b. Infra red, microwave, short wave, interferential
c. Ultraviolet, microwave, infra red, interferential
d. Infra red, ultraviolet, microwave, medium frequency current

185.The local errythema after infrared radiation may lasts up to
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 1 hour

186.At what distance should the infrared lamp of 750 watts be placed?
a. 4 meter
b. 6 meter
c. 1 meter
d. 1.5 meter

187.Which is not a contraindication of infra red?
a. Psoriasis
b. Defective arterial cutaneous circulation
c. Dermatitis
d. Defective blood pressure regulation

188.UVA is
a. Biotic
b. Abiotic
c. Germicidal
d. None of the above

189.Epidermal transit time is about
a. 30 days
b. 6 days
c. 28 days
21 days

190.The UVR most effective in producing Vit.- D is
a. 400-313 nm
b. 200-280 nm
c. 280-300 nm
d. None of the above

191.UV B & UV C are absorbed in ———-.
a. Cornea
b. Lens of eye
c. Both
d. None of the above

192.Which law is applicable to determine the distance between ultraviolet source and skin?
a. Inverse square law
b. Bunsen-Roscoe raciprocity law
c. Van’t Hoff’s law
d. None of the above

193.Neonatal Jaundice can be treated by —
a. Red light
b. Blue light
c. Infra red
d. Yellow light

194.Prolonged application of UVR may produce skin cancers because–
a. It damages melanocytes
b. It damages keratinocytes
c. It damages sebaceous glands
d. It damages langerhans cells.

195.Which is not therapeutics effect of UVR
a. Reduction of blood pressure
b. Treatment of acne valgaris
c. Pain reduction
d. Increased vitamin-D production

196.Treatment with UVR and visible radiation is
a. Helio therapy
b. Actino therapy
c. Photo therapy
d. Photobiomodulation

197.Which UV radiation is/are abiotic
a.UVA
b.UVA&UVB
c.UVC
d.UVA &UVC

198.Mostly UVR is absorbed in
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous tissue
d. Capillary loop

199.E2 dose of UVR IS
a. 2 X E1 dose
b. 2.5 X E1 dose
c. 3 X E1 dose
d. 5 X E1 dose

200.Skin oedema occurs in ———- dose of UVR
a. E1
b. E2
c. E3
d. E4

201.E3 dose of UVR can be given to ———-% of body
a. 50%
b. 22%
c. 11%
d. 4%

202.Erythema is best provoked by
a. UVA
b. UVB
c. UVC
d. All provoke erythema to the same extent

203.Which one among the UVR can produce cataract?
a. UVA
b. UVB
c. UVC
d. All can produce cataract to the same extent

204.The strongest predictor for intramuscular cooling is
a. Skin temperature
b. Adipose tissue thickness
c. Room and core temperature
d. Time

205.The systemic effects of cryotherapy is
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Decreased cardiac output
d. None of the above

206.Cold induced vasodilatation is due to
a. Local neurogenic axon reflex
b. Local release of vasodilator hormone
c. Gradual paralysis of smooth muscles of vessels
d. All of the above

207.Optimal temperature at which enzyme system for chemical and biological process operates is
a. 150C
b. 210C
c. 270C
d. 360C

208.When the tissue temperature is 10 – 110C metabolism reduces by
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. None of the above

209.Peripheral nerve fibres those are affected by cooling in order are
a. A δ,Aβ, Aγ
b. Aβ, Aγ, C
c. B, C , Aγ
d. All the fibres are equally affected

210.Joint position sense is affected by cryotherapy upto
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. Up to 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes

211.To have neuromuscular effect of cryotherapy the application should be upto
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. None of the above

212.For facilitation brisk icing duration is
a. 1 second
b. 2 second
c. 3 second
d. 4 second

213.Spasticity can be reduced by
a. Heating
b. Cooling
c. SWD
d. TENS

214.Kaolin has been used as
a. Hot moist pack
b. Dry hot pack
c. Cold pack
d. UV

215.Evaporating spray used in sports injury, contains
a. Fluori methane.
b. Fluori ethane.
c. Chlori ethane.
d. Ethyl chloride.

216.Fluido therapy contains
a. Warm water in large cabinet.
b. Water in room temp in large cabinet.
c. Cold water in large cabinet.
d. Mass of tiny cellulose particles suspended in moving air

217.Under cold condition the blood flow to each 100 gms of skin can be reduced to minimum about
a. 2 ml/ min
b. 20 ml/ min
c. 30 ml/ min
d. 1 ml/ min.

218.Which fibers are least affected by ice?
a. C fiber
b. Delta fiber
c. Aβ fiber
d. A Gamma fiber

219.Which therapeutic effect will differentiate between cold and heat treatments?
a. Relieving pain
b. Reduction of spasticity
c. Reduction of spasm
d. None of above

220.The extent of reduction in tissue temperature following cryotherapy depend on_.
a. Nature of substance applied and region of the body to which it is applied
b. Temperature difference between the substance and the skin
c. Duration of application
d. All of the above

Reference P. P. Mohanty