This Physio Fit India Post contains more than 300+ Orthopaedic Physiotherapy MCQs MPT preparation MCQs/Quiz Practice Mode like Medical,Railway,University Physiotherapy MCQs exams PP Mohanty Book . This post help physiotherapy based on various entrance and competitive examinations. Apart from the answers. This Website and posts focuses on students, teachers, and exam aspirants. The Post covers the syllabus for the exams like medical recruitment, railway recruitment, and other university and hospital recruitments. MCQ IN PHYSIOTHERAPY .
1. The term orthopaedic is derived from Greek words, which means____
a➤ Art of preventing and correcting deformities in children
b. Art of managing fracture and dislocation
c. Dealing with diseases and injuries of the trunk and limbs
d. Dealing with diseases and injuries of bones, joints, muscles and ligaments
2. Green stick fracture is seen in
a➤ Adult
b. Children
c. At any age
d. elderly
3. With fractures of the shaft of long bones, rotation is controlled by ___.
a➤ Immobilizing the joint close to the fracture site in slight flexion
b. Immobilizing the joint close to the fracture site in neutral position
c. Immobilizing the joints above and below it
d. Surgery
4. External fixation is used for ____.
a➤ Fracture with severe soft tissue injury involving skin and blood vessels
b. unstable fracture
c. pathological fracture
d. multiple fractures
5. Burst fracture is seen in
a➤ talus fracture
b. vertebral fracture
c. femoral head fracture
d. scaphoid
6. Plaster of paris is
a➤ hemihydrated calcium sulphate
b. hemihydrated calcium carbonate
c. hemihydrated calcium bicarbonate
d. non of the above
7. The epiphyseal plate is a barrier to the spread of infection, but if the involved metaphyses lie wholly or partly within a joint cavity, the joint is liable become infected. Which of the following metaphysic is not intra-capsular?
a➤ Upper metaphysis of humerus
b. Upper and lower metaphyses of femur
c. All the metaphyses at the elbow
d. Lower metaphysic of tibia
8. Ricket is due to deficiency of
a➤ Vit A
b. Vit B
c. Vit C
d. Vit D
9. Brodies abscess is a form of
a➤ Acute osteomyelitis
b. Chronic osteomyelitis.
c. Tubercular osteomyelitis
d. Syphilis
10. Glenoid faces ____________
a➤ Laterally downward,
b. forward, upward & laterally
c. backward, downward, outward
d. forward, downward & medially
11. Head of the humerus measures almost half a sphere with an angular value
_________
a➤ 180
b. 160
c. 150
d. 120
12. Neck shaft angle of humerus is ____________________
a➤ 45 degrees
b. 60 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 120 degrees
13. At rest scapula makes an angle of about ______________ with the frontal plane.
a➤ 15 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 60 degrees
14. Scapulo clavicular angle at rest is about ______________
a➤ 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 60 degrees
d. 90 degrees
15. Root of spine of scapula corresponds to _______________
a➤ T2.
b. T3
c. T5
d. T7
16. Glenohumeral joint capsule is laxed to allow mobility. The head of the humerus can be detracted laterally about ________________ with the arm by the side
a➤ 2 cm
b. 3cm
c. 4cm
d. 5cm
17. ______________ checks the downward pull of gravity on the arm by the side
a➤ superior joint capsule
b. rotator cuff
c. glenohumeral ligasmnet
d. deltoid
18. External rotation of gleno humeral joint is checked by _____________
a➤ middle gleno humeral ligament
b. inferior glenohumeral ligament
c. anterior coracohumeral ligament
d. posterior coracohumeral ligament
19. Trapezoid ligament of acromio clavicular joint checks ______________________
a➤ medical movement of clavicle
b. lateral movement of clavicle
c. downward movement
d. upward movement.
20. ____________ rotates the clavicle backward during elevation
a➤ upper trapezius
b. trapezoid ligament
c. conoid ligament
d. deltoid.
21. Elevation of medial end of clavicle at sternoclavicular joint is checked by
______________
a➤ anterior costo clavicular ligament
b. posterior costo clavicualr ligament
c. superior costo clavicular ligament
d. inferior costo clavicular ligament
22. __________ bursa often communicates with the shoulder joint
a➤ subacromial bursa
b. subscapular bursa
c. subdeltoid bursa
d. none
23. In kyphotic posture ___________ is responsible for the stability of glenohumeral joint with the arm by the side
a➤ tension of superior gleno humeral capsule
b. coracohumeral ligament
c. rotator cuff
d. deltoid
24. ___________ is the closed pack position of shoulder joint.
a➤ Abduction & External rotation
b. Flexion and external rotation
c. Horizontal abduction and external rotation
d. None
25. Resting position of gleno humeral joint is ______________
a➤ 30 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of flexion and some external rotation
b. 60 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of horizontal abduction
c. 45 degrees of abduction and 30 degrees of flexion and some internal rotation
d. 30 degrees of abduction and 60 degrees of horizontal abduction
26. Capsular pattern of shoulder joint is
a➤ restriction of lateral rotation
b. restriction of rotation and flexion
c. restriction of external rotation and abduction
d. decrease of external rotation
27. The commonest structures impinged is ____________
a➤ infraspinatus
b. supraspinatus
c. long head of biceps
d. subacromial bursa
28. Physiotherapy for shoulder impingement syndrome includes_____.
a➤ restoration of shoulder external rotation and scapular rotation
b. balancing deltoid-ratator cuff and trapezius-serratus anterior force couples
c. managing ACJ degenerative arthritis
d. all of the above
29. Locking position of shoulder joint is
a➤ flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b. external rotation, abduction & internal rotation
c. extension, abduction, external rotation
d. flexion, abduction, external rotation.
30. Drop arm test indicates __________
a➤ weakness of deltoid
b. rupture of suprasinatus
c. positive painful arc
d. none
31. A patient of frozen shoulder has 30 degrees of external rotation. Which mobilization technique would be indicated with such a limitation?
a➤ Lateral distraction and anterior glide
b. Lateral distraction and posterior glide
c. medial distraction and posterior glide
d. Medial distraction and inferior glide
32. When evaluating a case of bicipital tendonitis which clinical finding you would NOT expect to find ___________
a➤ increase in pain on isometric resistance to biceps
b. referred pain in C7, C8 dermatomes
c. painful arc with AROM
d. tenderness over bicipital tendon.
33. A patient is referred to you after three weeks of immobilization of shoulder following a dislocation. You may begin treatment with all of the following except _____
a➤ isometric shoulder exercises
b. passive ROM exercises
c. active resisted ROM exercises
d. isokinetic exercise with high speed.
34. Post operative physiotherapy following fracture clavicle includes___.
a➤ active free shoulder movements
b. avoidance of elevation and lifting weight
c. shoulder rotation mobilization
d. all of the above
35. Fracture shaft humerus is associated with
a➤ axillary nerve injury
b. radial nerve injury
c. brachial plexus injury.
d. Median nerve injury
36. Post operative physiotherapy following Putti-platt surgery for anterior recurrent shoulder dislocation are
a➤ isometric contraction of rotator cuff after surgery
b. active movements can be started after 3-4 weeks
c. mobilization of shoulder can be started after 3-4 weeks
d. progressive strengthening can be started after 3-4 weeks
37. ACJ injury can be managed by strengthening ___ muscles.
a➤ rotator cuff and deltoid
b. deltoid and trapezius
c. trapezius and serratus anterior
d. rotator cuff and serratus anterior
38. Positive adson’s test indicates TOS due to___.
a➤ scalene
b. cervical rib
c. reduced scapulo-clavicular angle
d. tumour
39. Physiotherapy for thoracic outlet syndrome includes___.
a➤ stretching of Scalenei, levator scapulae and pectorals to relieve pressure
b. strengthening of trapezius and serratus anterior to correct posture
c. modalities like US, moist heat to relive spasm and TENS, IFT to relieve pain
d. all of the above
40. Close packed position for humeroulnar joint is
a➤ extension
b. 50 degrees of flexion
c. 70 degrees of flexion
d. 90 degrees of flexion
41. Resting position for humeral radial joint is ___________
a➤ semiflexion & supinaton
b. semiflexion & pronation
c. extension & supination
d. extension & pronation
42. Capsular pattern of limitation of elbow joint is ______________
a➤ limitation of flexion
b. limitation of flexion more than extension
c. limitation of extension more than flexion
d. limitation of extension
43. Extension of elbow is associated with ____________
a➤ ulnar abduction and forearm pronation
b. ulnar abduction and supination of forearm
c. inferior glide of ulna
d. superior glide of radius
44. Flexion of elbow is associated with
a➤ inferior glide of ulnar and superior glide of radius
b. superior glide of ulna and inferior glide of radius
c. ulnar abduction and forearm pronation
d. radial adduction and forearm pronation
45. Usually the direction of elbow dislocation is _____.
a➤ backward
b. backward and lateral
c. backward and medial
d. forward
46. Following fracture supracondylar of humerus the small distal fracture segment is displaced backward. Uncorrected displaced fracture will limit _____ movement.
a➤ elbow flexion
b. elbow extension
c. fore arm rotation
d. alter carrying angle
47. Tennis elbow may involve__
a➤ common extensors origin characterized by pain during resisted isometric contraction
b. radio-humeral or superior radio-ulnar joint characterized by pain during joint play
c. lateral collateral ligament or annular ligament characterized by pain during passive movements, joint play and stress test
d. all of the above
48. Typical tennis elbow involves the common extensor muscles. Which muscle is commonly involved?
a➤ Extensor carpi radialis longus
b. Extensor carpi radialis bravis
c. Brachioradialis
d. Extensor Indices
49. VIC following fracture supracondylar of humerus results from____.
a➤ injury to brachial artery by the projected sharp proximal segment of humerus
b. tight plaster
c. excessive elbow flexion during immobilization
d. all of the above
50. Distal articulating surface of radius faces _____________
a➤ Inferiorly
b. Palmarly & ulnarly
c. Dorsally & ulnarly
d. Palmarly & outward
51. The carpal tunnel dimension increases with ___________
a➤ wrist flexion `
b. in neutral
c. in extension
d. none
52. There are __________________ long bones in hand
a➤ 15
b. 17
c. 19
d. 22
53. There are ___________ joints that make up the hand complex
a➤ 17
b. 19
c. 21
d. 27
54. The carpo metacarpal joint of little finger is having _____________ degrees of freedom
a➤ 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. none
55. Mallet finger is due to ___________
a➤ contracture of FDP
b. rupture of collateral slip of extensor expansion
c. rupture of central slip of extensor expansion
d. rupture of the volar plate
56. Swan neck deformity is due to ___________
a➤ contracture of extensor digitorum communis
b. intrinsic tightness
c. contracture of FDP
d. rupture/laxity of volar plate.
57. Bouttenaire deformity is due to ___________
a➤ Contracture of FDS
b. Rupture of central slip of extensor expansion
c. Contracture of extensor digitorum
d. Rupture of collateral slip of extensor expansion
58. Intrinsic tightness is characterized by _____________
a➤ increased DIP joint extension with PIP flexion than that with PIP joint extension
b. increased IP joint flexion with MCP joint flexion than that with MCP joint extension
c. increased IP joint flexion with wrist flexion than that with wrist extension
d. none
59. Tightness oblique retinacular ligament is characterized by _________________
a➤ decreased DIP joint flexion with PIP flexion than that with PIP extension ans: b
b. decreased DIP flexion with PIP extension than that with PIP flexion
c. decreased IP joint flexion with MCP joint flexion than that with MCP joint extension
d. decreased IP joint flexion with wrist flexion than that with wrist extension
60. The MCP joint is stable in _______________
a➤ semi flexion
b. maximum flexion
c. extension
d. hyper extension
61. The capsule, collateral ligaments, & accessory collateral ligaments of he MCP joints are taut in its close packed position which is the closed packed position of MCP joint?
a➤ 40 degree of flexion
b. maximum flexion
c. neutral
d. hyper extension
62. Hyperextension at IP joint of finger is checked by
a➤ volar plate
b. PDS
c. Tension of the skin
d. Collateral ligament
63. Inflammation of sheath of the_____ tendons within the sheath is referred as Dequervein’s disease.
a➤ FPL & FPB
b. ERL & EPB
c. Abd pollicis longus & abductor pollicis brevis
d. Abductor pollicis longus & extensor pollicis brevis
64. The space between ___________ & ___________ is referred to as Noman’s land.
a➤ PIP joint & DIP joint
b. MCP joint & PIP joint
c. MCP joint & DIP joint
d. Wrist joint to MCP joint
65. Close packed position for the wrist is _____________
a➤ neutral
b. full Dorsiflexion with radial deviation
c. full flexion
d. 45 degrees of dorsiflexion with ulnar deviation
66. The transverse metacarpal arch increases with
a➤ clenched fist
b. opening the fist
c. thumb opposition
d. none
67. During wrist extension ___________
a➤ distal carpals glides palmarly
b. proximal carpals glides palmarly
c. proximal carpal glide dorsally
d. proximal carpals supinates on radius
68. The capsular pattern of wrist joint is ________________
a➤ more limitation of wrist extension than flexion
b. equal limitation of wrist extension and flexion
c. more limitation of wrist flexion than extension
d. more limitation of ulnar deviation than radial deviation
69. The resting position for wrist is _____________
a➤ 30 degrees of extension with radial deviation
b. 30 degrees of extension with neutral deviation
c. neutral extension with slight ulnar deviation
d. 10 degrees of flexion
70. Component motion of MCP joint flexion include _________
a➤ dorsal gliding, pronation, ulnar deviation and distraction of base of proximal phalanx.
b. Palmar gliding, supination, ulnar deviation and approximation of base of proximal phalanx on metacarpal
c. Dorsal gliding, supination, ulnar deviation and approximation of base of proximal phalanx.
d. Palmar gliding, pronation, radial deviation and distraction of base of proximal phalanx.
71. Component motion of IP flexion of fingers include ___________
a➤ dorsal glide, pronation, ulnar deviation & distraction of more distal phalanx on the head of the proximal phalanx.
b. Palmar glide, pronation, ulnar deviation, approximation of distal phalanx on the head of the proximal phalanx.
c. Dorsal glide, supination, radial deviation, approximation, distal phalanx on the head of the proximal phalanx.
d. Palmar glide, supination, radial deviation and distraction of more distal phalanx, on head of proximal phalanx.
72. Avascular necrosis of scaphoid fracture occurs at
a➤ Proximal half
b. Distal half
c. Whole bones
d. Non of the above
73. Reverse colle’s fracture is otherwise known as
a➤ barton’s fracture
b. smith fracture
c. galeazzi fracture
d. pott’s fracture
74. Following extensor tendon repair in the hand ____.
a➤ the involved finger is only immobilized
b. all the fingers are immobilized
c. adjacent fingers are immobilized
d. non of the above
75. Angle of inclination of femur refers to
a➤ neck shaft angle in saggital plane.
b. Neck shaft angle in frontal plane
c. Neck shaft angle in transverse plane
d. None
76. Neck shaft angle in femur in frontal plane in child is _____________
a➤ 120 degreees
b. 130 degrees
c. 150 degrees
d. 170 degrees
77. Neck shaft angle of femur in transverse plane is referred as ___________
a➤ angle of inclination
b. angle of anteversion
c. angle of declination
d. coxa valga
78. Increase in angle of inclination of femur is referred to as
a➤ coxa valga
b. coxa plane
c. coxa vara
d. anteversion
79. Increase in torsion angle of femur is referred to as ________________
a➤ coxa valga
b. coxa vara
c. anteversion
d. retroversion
80. In toeing gait is the characteristic feature of __________
a➤ coxa valga
b. coxa vara
c. anteversion
d. retroversion
81. Reduced internal rotation of hip is the feature of ___________
a➤ coxa valga
b. coxa vara
c. anteversion
d. retroversion
82. The bending moment in the neck of femur is increased predisposing to the fracture neck in __________
a➤ coxa valga
b. coxa vara
c. anteversion
d. retroversion
83. The tip of greater trochanter lies above the shenton’s line in _________
a➤ coxa valga
b. CDH
c. Anteversion
d. Non of the above
84. The stable position for the hip is ______________
a➤ flexion, external rotation and abduction
b. extension, external rotation and adduction
c. neutral extension, internal rotation and abduction
d. full flexion, internal rotation and adduction
85. __________ strongest ligament in the body
a➤ ischio femoral
b. round ligament
c. pubo femoral
d. ilio femoral
86. One can hang on ilio femoral ligament using minimum muscle action by
___________
a➤ rolling the pelvis backward
b. rolling the pelvis forward
c. extension, abduction and internal rotation of hip
d. extension, abduction, external rotation of hip
87. In neutral standing position the hip joint is weaker ______________
a➤ anteriorly
b. posteriorly
c. inferiorly
d. superiorly
88. The resting position for the hip is ___________
a➤ neutral extension, abduction and rotation
b. 30 degrees of flexion, 30 degrees of abduction and slight external rotation
c. neutral extension, 30 degrees of abduction and slight internalrotation
d. 30 degrees of flexion, slight adduction and internal rotation.
89. Capsular pattern of restriction of hip is __________
a➤ internal rotation & abduction most restricted, flexion and extension restricted
b. external rotation & abduction most restricted, flexion and extension restricted
c. extension, internal rotation most restricted, flexion and external rotation restricted
d. flexion, internal rotation most restricted, extension and external rotation restricted.
90. The component motion for hip flexion is ______________
a➤ inferior and lateral glide of femoral head in acetabulum
b. posterior and superior glide of femoral head in acetabulum
c. posterior and inferior glide of femoral head in acetabulum
d. anterior and superior glide of femoral head in acetabulum
91. In single leg standing hip joint is subjected to load equal to ______________
a➤ 1/3rd of body weight
b. body weight
c. 2 times of body weight
d. 3 times of body weight
92. In case of LLD _________________ side bears more load
a➤ shorter
b. longer
c. both sides bears equal load
d. none
93. In case of coxa vara __________ side is prone to develop degenerative arthritis a
a➤ affected
b. unaffected
c. both
d. none of the above.
94. Hip joint is supplied by ________ segments
a➤ L1 – L3
b. L2 – L5
c. L2 – S1
d. L3 – S2.
95. ________________ bursa often communicates with the hip joint
a➤ subtrochantric
b. ischeal
c. ilio pectineal
d. adductor
96. In case of hip arthritis patient often complain pain on ___________ aspect of hip joint
a➤ anterior
b. posterior
c. lateral
d. medial
97. Lateral hip pain is the characteristic feature of _______________
a➤ sciatica
b. trochanteric bursitis
c. IT friction syndrome
d. Hip arthritis
98. Pain in the buttock is suggestive of pain of ___________ origin
a➤ lumbar spine
b. hip spine
c. piriformis
d. trochanteric
99. The characteristic features of slipped capital femoral epiphysis are _______.
a➤ limitation of abduction and internal rotation, femur rolls into abduction and external rotation during flexion and shortening.
b. limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation and shortening.
c. limitation of flexion and internal rotation, femur rolls into abduction and external rotation during flexion and lengthening
d. limitation of flexion, abduction and internal rotation and slengthening
100.Slipped capital femoral epiphysis occurs at _____________ age
a➤ birth
b. 5 – 10 years
c. 11 – 15 years
d. 16 – 20 years
101. Factors influencing prognosis in Perthe’s disease includes ____.
a➤ Early onset poor is the prognosis
b. early loss of hip movements poor is the pognosis
c. early weight bearing better is the prognosis
d. lateral sublaxation/ extrusion better is the prognosis 102. The principles of management of perthe’s disease is___.
a➤ Improve circulation to the femoral capital epiphysis
b. Traction
c. containment, weight relieve and ROM
d. surgery
103. __________ splint is recommended for CDH.
a➤ Pavlic harness
b. HKAFO
c. DB Splint
d. Aeroplane
104. Backward lurching of trunk during stance phase suggest ______________
a➤ hip extensor weakness on the side of swing leg
b. hip flexor weakness on the side of stance legs
c. hip extensor weakness on the side of stance leg
d. hip abductor weakness on the side of stance legs
105. Antalgic gait is characterized by ______________
a➤ Smaller step on the affected side
b. Smaller step on the sound side
c. Lurching on the sound side
d. Inadequate swing on the affected side
106. Pelvic inclination with the affected side upward implies __________________
a➤ Flexor contracture
b. Abductor contracture
c. Adductor contracture
d. Adductor weakness
107. In Thomas test position limitation of hip adduction ROM is due to
a➤ shortening of iliopsoas
b. TFL
c. Rectus femoris
d. Piriformis
108. Ely’s test is done to check length of ___________ muscle
a➤ ITB
b. Hamstrings
c. Rectus femoris
d. Hip adductors
109. Baer’s SI point refers to a point located approximately on the spino umbilical line
a➤ 2” from ASIS
b. 2” from umbilical
c. at the junction of medial 1/3rd and distal 2/3rd
d. none of the above
110. The source of pain in OA of hip is __________
a➤ articular cartilage
b. joint capsule
c. muscles
d. all of the above
111. __________ may give rise to secondary OA of hip
a➤ LLD
b. Capsular tightness
c. Fixed flexion deformity
d. All of the above
112. 1 KG increase in body adds ______________ lead to the supporting femoral head during stance phase
a➤ ½ Kg
b. 1 kg
c. 2 kg
d. 3kg
113. In early OA pain is felt __________
a➤ Following activities due to fatigue
b. Continuously due to inflammation
c. Constant pain
d. Night pain
114. The primary therapeutic goal in OA is __________
a➤ relief by application of modalities
b. prevent further progression by stretching of the joint capsule
c. Avoid weight bearing activities.
d. Strengthening the muscles surrounding the joint
115. In fracture neck of femur the blood supply to the head of the femur is retained by _____________
a➤ circumflex artery
b. nutritient artery.
c. Artery to ligament of the head of femur
d. Femoral artery
116. Which of the following is the cause of avascular necrosis of head of femur following fracture neck _____________
a➤ severing of arteries supplying the head of femur
b. infra capsular joint effusion prevents haematoma formation following fracture
c. lack of soft tissue contact at the fracture site
d. all of the above.
117. Complications of central fracture dislocation of hip joint ___.
a➤ intrapelvic haemmorrhage due to damage to vessels
b. genitor-urinary tract damage
c. recurrent dislocation
d. a and b
118. Characteristic features of traumatic posterior dislocation of hip____.
a➤ fixed in adduction and internal rotation, limited JROM and shortening
b. fixed in abduction and external rotation, limited JROM and shortening
c. limited abduction and internal rotation and no limb length discrepancy
d. fixed in adduction and external rotation, limited JROM and no limb length discrepancy
119. the primary indication of joint replacement is _______________
a➤ effusion
b. limited range of motion
c. muscle atrophy
d. pain
120. In case of THR, all of the following are true except____.
a➤ avoid flexion beyond 90, adduction beyond neutral and rotation
b. rolling through sound side
c. standing through affected side
d. leg swing in half standing
121. Which advice would not be correct for a patient following THR?
a➤ When turning pivot to the affected side
b. Do not cross your legs and keep a pillow between your legs while sleeping.
c. Avoid low chairs
d. All of the above
122. Replacement arthroplasty is a salvage procedure, the complications of which are instability and shortening. The post-operatively immobilization is given by skeletal traction for about 6 weeks and the physiotherapy includes___.
a➤ hip movements as pain allows
b. non weight bearing crutch walking and weight bearing allowed as good fibrous union occurs
c. strengthening exercises, weight relieving orthosis, foot wear compensation and walking aids
d. all of the above
123. In standing tibio femoral angle in the frontal plane is about __________
a➤ 0 degrees
b. 10 degrees
c. 140 degrees
d. 170 degrees
124. The articulating surface of patella consists of ___________ facets.
a➤ One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
125. Medial meniscus forms ________________
a➤ half of a large circle
b. almost all of a circle
c. ¾th of a circle
d. none
126. The function of meniscus is ___________
a➤ shock absorber
b. lubrication nutrition
c. load distribution
d. all
127. Medial meniscus is more prone to injury than lateral because
a➤ it is relatively more mobile.
b. It is less mobile than lateral meniscus
c. Medial compartment bears more than the lateral
d. None of the above
128. MCL is ___________
a➤ Long, Flat band
b. Short and rounded
c. Short and flat bone
d. Long and rounded
129. MCL checks _____________
a➤ Knee extension, abduction of tibia and external rotation
b. Knee extension, abduction of tibia and internal rotation
c. Knee flexion, adduction of tibia and internal rotation
d. Knee flexion, abduction of tibia and external rotation
130. Lateral Collateral Ligament checks _______
a➤ knee extension adduction of tibia and internal rotation
b. knee extension, adduction of tibia and external rotation
c. flexion abduction and external rotation
d. flexion adduction and internal rotation
131. ACL runs from the intercondylar area of the tibia _________
a➤ Forward, upward and medially
b. Forward, upward and laterally
c. Backward, upward and laterally
d. Backward, upward and medially
132. ACL checks _________
a➤ Flexion, forward movement of tibia and external rotation
b. Flexion, backward movement of tibia and internal rotation
c. Extension, forward movement of tibia and internal rotation
d. Extension, backward movement of tibia and external rotation
133. PCL checks
a➤ Backward movement of tibia, internalrotation and extension
b. Backward movement of tibia, external rotation and flexion
c. Forward movement of tibia, external rotation and extension
d. Forward movement of tibia, internal rotation and flexion
134. Pes anserinus includes __________
a➤ Semimembranosus, gracilis and sartorius
b. Semi membranosus, rectus femoris and ITB
c. Semitendinosus, gracilis and sartorius
d. Semitendinouss, pectineus and adductor magnus
135. Biceps femoris reinforces __________
a➤ anterior cruciate ligament and LCL
b. posterior cruciate ligament and LCL
c. posterior cruciate ligament and MCL
d. anterior cruciate ligament and MCL
136. In case of MCL injury strengthening of _____________ should be given
a➤ pes anserinus and semi membranosus
b. hamstrings
c. hip adductors
d. quadriceps
137. House maid’s knee refers to ________
a➤ Infra patellar bursitis, pre patellar bursitis
b. Supra patellar bursitis, quadriceps tendonitis
138. Knee extension is limited by _____________
a➤ bony contact
b. tension of hamstrings
c. tension of posterior skin
d. the tension of joint capsule
139. The closed packed position for the knee is __________
a➤ extension
b. full flexion
c. 25 degrees of knee flexion
d. 90 degrees of knee flexion
140. The capsular pattern of the knee is _________
a➤ flexion is more restricted than extension
b. extension is more restricted than flexion
c. flexion terminally restricted and extension full
d. extension terminally restricted and flexion full
141. The component motions of knee flexion are
a➤ inferior glide of patella, anterior glide of tibia and external rotation
b. inferior gliding of patella, posterior glide of tibia and internal rotation
c. superior gliding of patella, posterior glide of tibia and external rotation
d. superior gliding of patella, anterior glide of tibia and internal rotation
142. Stair climbing requires approximately knee flexion
a➤ 85 degrees
b. 95 degrees
c. 105 degrees
d. 115 degrees
143. Normal human locomotion requires _______________ knee flexion
a➤ 36 degrees
b. 67 degrees
c. 98 degrees
d. 105 degrees
144. Meniscus injury occurs due to ___________
a➤ valgus injury
b. varus injury
c. dash board injury
d. rotatory dysfunction
145. Dash board injury may give rise to _____________
a➤ injury ACL
b. injury MCL
c. injury PCL
d. injury Meniscus
146. Squatting and descending the stairs become difficult in case of
______________
a➤ ACL injury
b. PCL injury
c. MCL injury
d. Meniscus injury
147. Locking is a feature of _____________ injury
a➤ Collateral ligament
b. Meniscus
c. Cruciates
d. All of the above
148. Hyper extension injury my result in tearing of ______________
a➤ meniscus
b. collateral ligament
c. ACL
d. PCL
149. Running with turning and sharp cut is painful in ___________ injury
a➤ ACL,
b. PCL
c. Collateral ligament
d. Meniscus
150. Haemarthrosis develops within __________ of injury and is very painful
a➤ minutes to hours
b. hours to days
c. days to weeks
d. weeks to months
151. Insidious onset of anterior/antero medial knee pain aggravated with activities involving knee bending is a feature of _____________
a➤ TF DJD
b. PF DJD
c. Ligamentous injury
d. Meniscus injury.
152. Normal relation between the length of the patella and patellar tendon is
__________
a➤ length of patella> patellar tendon
b. length of patellar tendon> patella
c. length of patellar tendon = patella
d. no such relation exists
153. In patella alta _____________
a➤ length of patellar tendon > patella
b. length of patella> patellar tendon
c. length of patellar tendon = patella
d. none of the above
154. The Q angle is 130 to 180, it becomes 00 in ____________________
a➤ In lying with quadriceps contracting statically
b. In high sitting with quadriceps relaxed
c. In high sitting with leg rotated externally
d. In standing with the quadriceps contracting statically
155. In high sitting with the legs hanging freely inferior pole of patella lies
__________
a➤ above the tibiofemoral joint line
b. below the tibiofemoral joint line
c. at the level of tibiofemoral joint line
d. none of the above
156. Positive valgus stress with the knee in extension indicates __________
a➤ sprain MCL
b. sprain ACL
c. sprain MCL &ACL
d. sprain MCL with PCL.
157. In supine lying with knees bent at 600 less prominent tibial tubercle on one side indicates PCL rupture whereas more prominent tibial tubercle indicates
a➤ rupture ACL
b. quadriceps contracture
c. patellofemoral tracking dysfunction
d. Os Good schalter disease
158. You are evaluating a patient with injury to the posterior cruciate ligament. The mechanism of injury for the P.C. L is ___________
a➤ Forceful landing on anterior tibia with knee hyper flexed.
b. Anterior force on tibia when foot is fixed.
c. Valgus force applied to knee when foot is fixed.
d. Forced internal rotations of leg.
159. Positive apley’s grinding test with external rotation of tibia and compression indicates lesion of _____________
a➤ MCL
b. Medial Meniscus
c. LCL
d. Lateral Meniscus
160. Quadriceps to hamstrings strength ration is _______________
a➤ 2:1
b. 3:2
c. 5:3
d. 5:4
161. During early phase of rehabilitation of ACL injury, managed conservatively or surgically, knee ROM is limited to _____________________
a➤ 00 to 600
b. 100 to 900
c. 450 to 900
d. full range
162. For the rehabilitation of ACL emphasis should be given for the strengthening of
_____________ to regain stability
a➤ quadriceps
b. hamstrings
c. both quadriceps & hamstrings equally
d. quadriceps more than hamstrings
163. ______________ is the recent trend for the management of meniscal injury
a➤ partial menisectomy
b. total menisectomy
c. meniscus repair
d. conservative treatment
164. A patient four weeks post arthroscopic menisectomy presents with knee flexion limitation. Which mobilization technique is beneficial to increase flexion ROM.
a➤ Anterior glide of tibia
b. Superior glide of patella
c. posterior glide of tibia.
d. Anterior glide fibular head
165. Following repair of anterior horn of medial meniscus ROM exercise is given by CPM, during which the hinge brace is locked between _____ range.
a➤ 0 -90
b. 30 – 80
c. 10 – 110
d. full
166. Following synovectomy ____.
a➤ immolisation is given till stitch removal
b. immolisation is given for 3 weeks
c. immolisation is given for 6 weeks
d. active movements can be initiated after 48-72 hours
167. The dynamic factors responsible to check lateral patellar tracking dysfunction is
______________
a➤ hip adduction
b. vastus medialis
c. vastus lateralis
d. Rectus femoris
168. Surgical procedure for recurrent dislocation of patella is _____.
a➤ lateral retinacular release
b. medialisation of tibial tuberosity
c. Vastus medialis transfer
d. All of the above
169. Tibiofemoral compressive load increases with knee flexion because of
_______________
a➤ increase in weight transfer
b. increase in quadriceps contraction
c. increasing incongruence
d. none
170. Patient with degenerative joint disease of knee joint presents with knee joint ROM of 20 to 100 degrees, complain of pain and difficulty in ADL. Which movement will you restore first?
a➤ Flexion
b. Extension
c. Both
d. None
171. Choose the correct statement regarding DJD.
a➤ loading the joint in incongruent positions predispose/precipitates DJD
b. it manifests with capsular contracture and crepitus
c. capsular tightness predispose/precipitates DJD
d. all of the above
172. Joint protection measures include _____.
a➤ Reduction of body weight and ravoidance of weight bearing activities
b. capsular stretching and muscle strengthening
c. Use of orthosis for correct alignment of the joint and use of walking aids to reduce joint loading
d. All of the above
173. Physiotherapy management for OA knee includes______.
a➤ Joint mobilization and stretching to correct deformities
b. Small arc muscle endurance/strengthening to deload the joint
c. Prophylactic measures and Proprioceptive training
d. All of the above
174. Following cemented TKR, patient weans from crutches by_____.
a➤ Stitch removal
b. 3weeks
c. 6weeks
d. 3 months
175. Uncemented TKR patient can walk after_____.
a➤ Stitch removal
b. 3weeks
c. 6weeks
d. 3 months.
176. A patient post knee replacement is referred to you for ROM and strengthening exercise. Which treatment you my not choice for this patient.
a➤ Active stretching by contract and relax
b. Joint mobilization to gain joint play.
c. SLR
d. Closed kinetic chain exercise
177. The direction of displacement following supracondylar fracture femur is __
a➤ proximal fracture segment is displaced backward limiting flexion
b. proximal fracture segment is displaced forward limiting extension
c. distal fracture segment is displaced backward limiting extension
d. distal fracture segment is displaced forward limiting flexion 178. Clean cut fracture separation of patella is managed by _____.
a➤ conservatively
b. tension band wiring
c. patellectomy
d. all of the above
179. A patient sustains fracture of the upper fibula with injury to the common peroneal nerve. Power of dorsifexors and evertors are 2/5. the most suitable management to help the patient with ADL is ______________
a➤ electrical stimulation
b. orthosis
c. exercise programme
d. hydrotherapy
180. Deltoid ligament refers to _________________
a➤ MCL of ankle
b. LCL of ankle
c. Inferior tibiofibular ligament
d. Talocalcaneal ligament
181. ________________ is the most frequently injured ligament about the ankle
a➤ calcaneofibular ligament
b. deltoid ligament
c. anterior talofibular ligament
d. posterior talofibular ligament
182. Plantar calcaneo navicular ligament is referred as _____________
a➤ interosseous ligament
b. spring ligament
c. deltoid ligament
d. bifurcate ligament
183. Anterior talofibular ligament checks _______________
a➤ posterior movement of leg over talus, external rotation of leg and inversion
b. posterior movement of leg over talus, internal rotation of leg and inversion
c. anterior movement of leg over talus, internal rotation of leg and eversion
d. anterior movement of leg over talus, external rotation of leg and eversion
184. The mechanism of injury of anteiro talofibular ligament is _______________
a➤ eversion
b. inversion
c. combined plantar flexion and inversion
d. combination of dorsi flexion an diversion
185. In neutral standing with the feet pointed outward about 100, patella faces inward indicates _______________
a➤ internal rotation of hip
b. internal rotation of leg
c. anteversion of femur
d. internal tibial torsion
186. Squinting patella with neutral hip rotation ROM indicates
__________________
a➤ internal rotation of hip
b. femoral retroversion
c. external tibial torsion
d. all
187. The component motion for ankle dorsiflexion is _______________
a➤ anterior glide of talus on the mortise
b. posterior gliding of talus in the mortise
c. compression of inferior tibiofibular joint
d. inversion of talus
188. Foot pronation includes _____________
a➤ Plantar flexion, eversion adduction
b. Plantar flexion, inversion, abduction
c. Plantar flexion, inversion, adduction.
d. Dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction
189. Supination of foot is the combination of_____________
a➤ Ankle DF subtalar eversion & forefoot abduction
b. Ankle PF subtalar inversion & forefoot adduction
c. Ankle DF subtalar inversion & forefoot abduction
d. Ankle PF subtalar eversion & forefoot adduction
190. The axis of the ankle joint is directed backward and backward medio laterally, it makes about _______________
a➤ 250 from the frontal plane and 10 to 150 from transverse plane
b. 250 from the obiliza plane and 10 to 150 from transverse plane
c. 400 from the obiliza plane and 300 from transverse plane
d. 400 from the frontal plane and 300 from transverse plane
191. When a ligament of the ankle completely torn the injury should be classified as
a➤ grade I sprain
b. grade II sprain
c. grade III sprain
d. grade IV sprain
192. Connective tissue disease tend to be
a➤ disorders of males in forteens
b. females after menopause
c. females in child bearing age
d. females in cold climatic conditions
193. A patient is said to have rheumatoid arthritis if he/she has at least
______________ criteria out of seven
a➤ 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. all the seven
194. Haemosiderin deposit in synovium occurs in
a➤ Gout
b. Haemophilia
c. Tabes dorsalis
d. Reiter’s syndrome
195. Essence of pathology in RA is
a➤ Persistence synovitis
b. Articular cartilage damage
c. Deformities in joints
d. Tendon ruptures
196. Enthesopathy occurs in
a➤ rheumatoid arthritis
b. ankylosing spondylitis
c. psoriatic arthritis
d. SLE
197. Lumbar spine is not involved in
a➤ Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. None of the above
198. Enlarged spleen, lymphadenopathy anaemic with ulceration of legs is
a➤ Sjorgren’s syndrome
b. Reiter’s syndrome
c. Felty’s syndrome
d. Psoriatic arthritis
199. HLA B 27 is negative in
a➤ Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Reiter’s syndrome
c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. SLE
200. Neurological involvement in Rheumatoid arthritis includes___.
a➤ compression of peripheral nerve due to tenosynovitis e.g. CTS
b. peripheral neuropathy due to vasculitis
c. SCI due to sulaxation/dislocation of atlanto-axial joint
d. All of the above
201. Seronegative inflammatory arthritis conditions have a primary effect on
a➤ Axial skeleton
b. Lumbar spine
c. Big joints of the body
d. Smaller joints of the body
202. Sausage fingers are found in
a➤ Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Psoriatric arthritis
c. Scleroderma
d. Gout
203. Herberden’s nodes are present in
a➤ Wrist
b. Subcutaneous tissue
c. DIP
d. Shin of tibia
204. Sjogren’s syndrome and felty’s syndrome are variants of
a➤ SLE
b. Scleroderma
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Psoriatic arthritis
205. Serum uric acid level is higher in
a➤ SLE
b. Stills disease
c. Gout
d. None of the above
206. Raynaud’s phenomenon is the first presentation of
a➤ SLE
b. Polymyositis
c. Scleroderma
d. Still’s disease
207. Skin rash after exposure to sunlight is found in
a➤ Polymyositis
b. SLE
c. Scleroderma
d. Gout
208. Modified New York criteria for the diagnosis of Ankylosing spondylosis includes___
a➤ Insidious onset of morning stiffness and limited lumbar motion in two planes, improved by movements
b. Bilateral Sacro-ilitis in x-rays
c. Chest expansion less than 2.5 cm at nipple level
d. All
209. Contractile tissue dysfunction is characterized by____.
a➤ pain during resisted isometric contraction and passive stretching
b. pain during passive movement
c. pain during joint play
d. pain during active movement
210. Noncontractile tissue dysfunction is characterized by____.
a➤ pain during resisted isometric contraction
b. pain during active movement
c. pain during passive movement and joint play
d. non of the above
211. Cyriax’s DTFM for the ligament is given in _______________
a➤ Relaxed position followed by active movement
b. Taut position followed by active movement
c. Variable joint position followed by passive movement
d. Any position followed by passive movement
212. Cyriax principle of management for spinal problems is _____________
a➤ Oscillatory rhythmic gliding
b. Traction & manipulation
c. Self treatment
d. DTFM and injection
213. Adhesion within the muscle is characterized by
a➤ reduced active movement while passive ROM is full
b. reduction of passive ROM
c. reduced broadening of muscle/bulk during active contraction
d. pain during resisted isometric contraction
214. Adhesion of tendon with its sheath is characterized by ______________
a➤ decreased of active movement while passive movement is full
b. decreased passive stretching
c. crepitus
d. pain during resisted isometric contraction
215. DTFM to the tendon is given with the _________________
a➤ Muscle is relaxed position
b. In variable joint position
c. Tendon is taut position
d. Muscle in contracted position
216. Following DTFM to the muscle _______________ should be encouraged.
a➤ Active movement
b. Passive stretching
c. Resisted movement
d. Active assisted movement
217. The rate of movement for DTFM is ______________ cycles/sec
a➤ 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 3-4
d. 4-5
218. The effects of deep transverse friction massage includes____.
a➤ it disperses the exudates and relieves pain
b. prevents/breaks adhesion
c. induces local erythema
d. all of the above
219. McKenzie’s derangement model is characterized by ______________
a➤ Repeated movement in the direction of derangement produces centralization of symptoms.
b. Repeated movement in opposite direction of derangement produces centralization of symptoms.
c. Repeated movement in the direction of derangement aggravates the symptoms.
220. according to Mckenzie, in case of derangement pain is relieved by _________
a➤ opening of IVF
b. pain gate theory
c. Reduction of the deranged disc material
d. not known
221. McKenzie’s dysfunction syndrome is characterized by ______________
a➤ Pain at end range restricted range of motion due to stretching of tight structure
b. Repeated movement in the direction of dysfunction relieves the symptoms.
c. Repeated movement in opposite direction of dysfunction aggravates the symptoms.
d. non of the above
222. The treatment for McKenzie’s dysfunction syndrome is
a➤ repeated in the direction of dysfunction
b. sustained movement in the opposite direction of dysfunction
c. posture correction
d. traction
223. McKenzie recommends for flexion exercises in case of posterior derangement syndrome
a➤ Once patient remains pain free for 3 days
b. Once patient remains pain free for 1 weeks
c. Once patient remains pain free for 3 weeks
d. Once patient remains pain free for 6 weeks
224. Ceralization of pain occurs in
a➤ dysfunction
b. derangement
c. postural syndrome
d. all of the above
225. Centralization is characterized by ______________
a➤ shifting of pain to more proximal part over time
b. decease of intensity of pain
c. decrease of duration of pain
d. all of the above
226. Repetitive movement in the direction of derangement is recommended by McKenzie. The number of repetition should be ______________
a➤ 10-15
b. 15 – 20
c. 20 – 30
d. 30 – 50
227. According to McKenzie treatment for unilateral/ asymmetrical pain with scoliosis deformity is____.
a➤ first correct the listing
b. lay down in prone
c. spinal extension in prone
d. traction
228. Maitland’s manual therapy concept is a clinical concept having two compartments, theoretical and clinical with a permeable wall in between. The core concept includes___.
a➤ subjective and objective evaluation
b. listen to the patient and believe him
c. formulate working hypothesis
d. all of the above
229. Joint play is differentiated from physiological movement __
a➤ it occurs in anatomical planes
b. it can be produced voluntarily
c. it can be measured
d. it can not be seen from outside
230. Joint gliding is defined as
a➤ the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface
b. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with a fixed point of the stationary surface
c. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface at regular intervals
d. non of the above
231. Joint rolling can be defined as
a➤ the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface
b. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with a fixed point of the stationary surface
c. the reference point on the movable surface comes in contact with variables points of the stationary surface at regular intervals
d. non of the above
232. Maitland SIN group is characterized by
a➤ pain encountered before motion barrier
b. pain encountered after motion barrier
c. pain & motion barrier encounter together
d. non of the above
233. Maitland’s Rhythmic oscillation mobilization technique can be applied
a➤ only for joint play (Gliding)
b. only for physiological movement
c. both for joint play and physiological movement
d. none
234. Lateral PA mobilization is applied on ________________
a➤ the painful side
b. pain free side
c. both the sides
d. either of side
235. Grade ______________ mobilization is given for SIN group
a➤ I b. II
c. I & II
d. III & IV
236. To improve JROM which grade mobilizations are used ________________
a➤ I & II
b. II & III
c. III & IV
d. None of the above
237. Medium speed in maitland’s mobilization is equal ______________
a➤ ½ sec
b. 1 sec
c. 2 sec
d. 3 sec
238. Transverse pressure on right side of spinous process _______________
a➤ opens the foramen on left
b. closes the foramen on right
c. open the foramen on right
d. opens on both the sides
239. For bilateral symptoms of the extremities of spinal origin ____ mobilization technique is recommended by Maitland.
a➤ central PA over spinous process
b. lateral PA over articular pillar on the more painful side
c. transverse gliding from the less painful side
d. non of the above
240. When the concave surface moves over the convex ________________
a➤ gliding and rolling occurs in the direction of movement
b. gliding in the direction of movement & rolling in opposite direction
c. rolling in the direction of movement and gliding in the opposite direction
d. gliding and rolling occur in the opposite direction to the movement
241. Kaltenborn’s GI traction is _______________
a➤ Small amplitude distraction to nullify joint compression forces without any distraction.
b. The slack is taken up and the surrounding tissue are not stretched
c. The joint is distracted to increase the joint space
d. Non of the above
242. At rest joint is subjected to _______________
a➤ joint cohesive force
b. muscle contraction
c. atmospheric pressure
d. all of the above
243. In close packed position ___________
a➤ intracapsular space is greater
b. joint loading is maximum
c. joint is most stable
d. joint is incongruent
244. Resting position is a position, where the ______.
a➤ Joint volume is maximum and pressure is minimum
b. Capsuloligamentous structures are laxed
c. joint is incongruent and least stable
d. all of the above
245. Injury in closed pack position results into______.
a➤ fracture
b. dislocation
c. sublaxation
d. avulsion
246. ________ is the characteristic of muscle spasm.
a➤ limitation of active movement with pain
b. limitation of passive movement
c. limitation of joint play
d. all of the above
247. The physiological motion barrier shifts towards the beginning and passive joint range of motion is restricted in case of ______ lesion.
a➤ muscle spasm
b. ligamentous
c. bony
d. skin
248. Anatomical barrier shifts to left in case of ______________
a➤ muscle spasm
b. ligamentous shortening
c. bony restriction
d. none of the above
249. The coupling movement in cervical spine is ___.
a➤ side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction
b. side flexion and rotation occurs in the opposite direction
c. direction depends on cervical spine flexion/extension position
d. side flexion and rotation occurs independently 250. The coupling movement in thoracic spine is ___.
a➤ side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction
b. side flexion and rotation occurs in the opposite direction
c. direction depends on cervical spine flexion/extension position
d. side flexion and rotation occurs independently 251. The coupling movement in lumber spine is ___.
a➤ side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction
b. side flexion and rotation occurs in the opposite direction
c. side flexion and rotation occurs in the same direction when the spine is flexed and opposite direction when it is neutral or extended
d. side flexion and rotation occurs independently
252. Creep is the characteristic property of viscoelastic structures, which is defined as____
a➤ elongation over time with the load remaining constant
b. load reduces over time with the length remaining constant
c. elongation is slower than recoil
d. relaxation is slower than lengthening
253. Choose the correct statement
a➤ tissue elongation is faster than relaxation
b. tissue elongation is slower than relaxation
c. Rate of tissue elongation is equal to relaxation
d. Non of the above
254. Rate of tissue elongation is faster than relaxation because______.
a➤ rate of fluid reabsorption is faster than rate of fluid release.
b. rate of fluid release is faster than rate of fluid reabsorption
c. elongation is an active process, whereas relaxation is passive
d. relaxation requires more energy than elongation
255. Mobilisation with movement concept was developed by _____
a➤ Mannel
b. Maitland
c. Mulligan
d. Cyriax
256. Principle of Mulligan’s manual therapy is ______.
a➤ self treatment technique
b. sustained gliding in the treatment plane
c. pain free active movement in weight bearing position is done, which is otherwise painful
d. all of the above
257. The human spine has __ segments.
a➤ 24
b. 29
c. 33
d. 37
258. Total 23 presacral vertebrae indicate ____.
a➤ lumberisation of sacral vertebra
b. sacralisation of lumber vertebra
c. supernumery thoracic or lumbar vertebra
d. non of the above
259. The thoracic kyphotic curve is due to ____.
a➤ wedge shaped IVD with lesser anterior height
b. wedge shaped vertebral body with lesser anterior height
c. wedge shaped vertebral body and IVD with lesser anterior height
wedge shaped vertebral body with lesser anterior height and wedge shaped
IVD with greater anterior height 260. The cervical lordosis is due to ____.
a➤ wedge shaped IVD with greater anterior height
b. wedge shaped vertebral body with greater anterior height
c. wedge shaped vertebral body and IVD with lesser anterior height
d. wedge shaped vertebral body with greater anterior height and wedge shaped IVD with lesser anterior height 261. The spine has ___ motion segments.
a➤ 23
b. 24
c. 32
d. 34
262. The zygapophyseal joint can bear up to___ load depending on spinal posture.
a➤ 10 – 25%
b. 25 -33%
c. 33 – 50%
d. non of the above
263. The facets in the cervical region are oriented _____.
a➤ 45 to frontal plane and parallel to transverse plane
b. 45 to transverse plane and parallel to frontal plane
c. 60 to transverse plane and 20 to frontal plane
d. 45 to frontal plane and 90 to transverse plane
264. Lumbar facet joints are almost parallel to saggital plane allowing____.
a➤ more of flexion-extension, less side flexion, but no rotation
b. more rotation, less flexion-extension and no side flexion
c. more side flexion, less flexion-extension, but no rotation
d. more of flexion-extension, less rotation, but no side flexion
265. The disc space in young adults contributes to about _____ of total vertebral column height.
a➤ 10-20%
b. 20-33%
c. 34-45%
d. 46-50%
266. The intervertebral disc derives its nutrition _____
a➤ directly from the vessels supplying it
b. from the synovial fluid
c. from the vertebral bodies above and below it through the vertebral end plates
d. from the surrounding tissues
267. Traction reduces the intra discal pressure, during the traction phase the disc absorb the fluid and the negative intra discal pressure gradually neutralizes over time. So
a➤ sustained traction should not be applied more than 10-12 minutes
b. release of sustained traction increases the intradiscal pressure and aggravates the symptoms
c. intermittent traction can be applied for longer duration
d. all of the above
268. PID is more common during_____ years of age.
a➤ 20-30
b. 30-40
c. 40-50
d. any age
269. Movement present at altanto-occipital joint are_____.
a➤ flexion-extension, some side flexion, but no rotation
b. rotation, some flexion-extension, but no side fiexion
c. side flexion , some flexion-extension, but no rotation
d. flexion-extension, some rotation and less side flexion
270. To check the movement of upper cervical spine, lock the lower cervical spine in full flexion.
a➤ movement of atlanto-occipital joint is tested by side flexion
b. movement of atlanto-xial joint is tested by side flexion
c. movement of atlanto-occipital joint is tested by rotation
d. movement of atlanto-occipital joint is tested by flexion-extension
271. Migraine must be excluded before treating cervical spine, which is characterized by___.
a➤ intermittent throbbing headache, blurring vision, nausea etc. to activities
b. intermittent throbbing headache, blurring vision, nausea etc. unrelated to activities
c. intermittent throbbing headache, blurring vision, nausea etc. reproduced
by rotation, extension and side flexion to painful side
d. non of the above
272. Side flexion of head and neck to right includes___.
a➤ side flexion, rotation of lower cervical spine to right with slight extension and full rotation of atlant-axial joint to left, side flexion of atlanto-occipital
joint to right in slight flexion
b. side flexion and rotation of cervical spine to right
c. side flexion to right and rotation left
d. side flexion to left and rotation of lower cervical spine to right with slight extension and full rotation of atlant-axial joint to left, side flexion of atlanto-occipital joint to right in slight flexion 273. Head forward posture may give rise to____.
a➤ flexion dysfunction of lower cervical spine and extension dysfunction of lower
b. PID lower cervical spine/TOS
c. Impingement syndrome/periarthritis
d. All of the above
274. Flexion injury leading to anterior wedge fracture of vertebral body is common ___ region.
a➤ cervical
b. thoracic
c. lumbar thoraco-lumbar
275. ______ injury of spine may lead to displacement and SCI.
a➤ flexion
b. hyperextension
c. flexion-rotation
d. vertical compression
276. The common site of fracture dislocation is TL region, which results from flexion-rotation injury. The method of management is___.
a➤ positional reduction by lying supine with pillow support
b. manipulative reduction
c. ORIF
d. traction
277. Protrusion with complete rupture of annulus allowing the nucleus to bulge into the neural canal is referred as ____.
a➤ herniation
b. extrusion
c. sequestration
d. noncontained disc
278. The normal sequence of degeneration is ____.
a➤ annular tear, hypermobility, stabilization
b. hypermobility, annular tear, stabilization
c. stabilization, annular tear, hypermobility,
d. non of the above
279. Which ligament in our body contains more elastin fibres?
a➤ Longitudinal ligament
b. Interspinous ligament
c. Ligamentum nuchae
d. Ligamentum flavum
280. Locked facet in the lumbar spine is due to ____.
a➤ Localized hypermobility
b. failure of ligamentum flavum
c. muscle weakness
d. unguarded movements
281. Posterolateral disc prolapse in lumbar spine is common, why?
a➤ Disc lies more posteriorly
b. Load is more
c. Posterior longitudinal ligament is narrower
d. All of the above
282. About 90-95% persons with PID lists away from the painful side, while rest of 5-10% lists towards the same side indicating prolapse medial to the root, which is characterized by____.
a➤ side flexion towards the sound side aggravates the symptoms
b. lateral PA pressure over sound side reproduces the symptoms
c. traction aggravates the symptoms
d. all of the above
283. Choose the correct statement regarding intradiscal pressure.
a➤ IDP in semifowler position > supine
b. IDP in supine > side lying
c. IDP in lying > standing
d. IDP in sitting > standing
284. Sequence of physiotherapy for PID are_____.
a➤ passive mobilization, traction, stretching, auto assisted exercise, active exercises
b. traction, stretching, mobilization, active exercises, assisted exercise
c. active exercises, auto assisted exercise, stretching, traction, Mobilization
d. auto assisted exercise, active exercises, mobilization, stretching, traction 285. Spondylosis is characterized by ____.
a➤ hypermobility
b. stiff spine
c. spinal instability
d. locking
286. Physiotherapy management of Spondylolisthesis excludes___.
a➤ back extension exercises
b. stretching of hip flexors, hamstrings
c. spinal flexion exercises
d. spinal stabilasation exercise
287. When treating an acute lumbo – strain the treatment choice is ________
a➤ hot packs and ultra sound
b. extension exercises
c. flexion exercises
d. difficult to decide based on information given
288. All of the following are true concerning scoliosis except _____________
a➤ a 15 degree to 20 degree curve is mild curve
b. Bracing is an effective treatment tool.
c. Scoliosis is named by the direction of concavity
d. Early detection is essential.
289. The most common cause for lower limb amputations is
a➤ congenital deformities
b. infection
c. trauma
d. vascular disease
290. Stitching opposite group of muscles with each other to cover the distal end of the stump is known as ____ technique of amputation.
a➤ myodesis
b. myoplasty
c. closed
d. open
291. The purpose of stump bandaging includes all of the following except
___________
a➤ provides protection against accidental injuries
b. reduces edema
c. supports for surgical wound
prevents contractures
292. Physiotherapy for phantom pain or phantom limb sensation includes TENS.
Where will you place the electrodes?
a➤ stump end
b. one over the painful site and other over the nerve trunk
c. one over the stump end and other over the dermatome
d. any where over the stump
293. Active stump exercises can be started after_____.
a➤ Removal of the drainage tube
b. Stitch removal
c. 3 weeks
d. 6 weeks
294. In case of AK amputee prosthetic knee stabilization can be achieved by____.
a➤ action of gluteus maximus
b. trochanteric knee alignment
c. extension aid
d. all of the above
295. Neurovascular deficits are common complications of fracture____ of femur.
a➤ shaft
b. supracondylar
c. trochanter
d. condyles
296. Haemophilics should avoid___.
a➤ IM injection
b. contact games
c. intake of Aspirin & other NSAID
d. all of the above
297. Physiotherapy after bleeding in haemophilic can be started ____.
a➤ once bleeding stops, characterized by reduction of swelling, pain and warmth
b. within 8 – 24 hours of factor infusion
c. once isometric contraction of the overlying muscle is possible
d. all of the above
298. Physiotherapy in haemophilia includes____.
a➤ ice and rest following acute bleeding
b. early isometric contractions followed by active exercises to strengthen muscles
c. Gradual stretching and joint mobilization with the traction
d. all of the above
299. Therapeutic modality used in haemophilia ____.
a➤ US
b. PEME
c. IFT/ES
d. all of the above
300. Charcoat joints are ____.
a➤ painless arthritic joint disease
b. degeneratine joint disease
c. infective joint disease
d. ankylosed joints
Answer Sheet of PT in Orthopadic conditions
| 1. a | 41. c | 81. d | 121. d | 161. c | 201. a | 241. a | 281. d |
| 2. b | 42. b | 82. b | 122. d | 162. b | 202. b | 242. d | 282. d |
| 3. c | 43. a | 83. b | 123. b | 163. c | 203. c | 243. c | 283. c |
| 4. a | 44. a | 84. c | 124. c | 164. c | 204. c | 244. d | 284. b |
| 5. b | 45. b | 85. d | 125. a | 165. b | 205. c | 245. a | 285. b |
| 6. a | 46. a | 86. a | 126. d | 166. d | 206. c | 246. d | 286. a |
| 7.d | 47. d | 87. a | 127. b | 167. b | 207. a | 247. b | 287. d |
| 8.d | 48. b | 88. b | 128. a | 168. d | 208. d | 248. c | 288. c |
| 9. b | 49. d | 89. a | 129. a | 169. c | 209. a | 249. a | 289. c |
| 10. a | 50. b | 90. c | 130. a | 170. b | 210. c | 250. b | 290. b |
| 11. c | 51. a | 91. d | 131. c | 171. d | 211. c | 251. c | 291. d |
| 12. a | 52. c | 92. b | 132. c | 172. d | 212. b | 252. a | 292. b |
| 13. b | 53. b | 93. b | 133. a | 173. d | 213. c | 253. a | 293. b |
| 14. c | 54. b | 94. c | 134. a | 174. c | 214. a | 254. b | 294. d |
| 15. b | 55. b | 95. c | 135. a | 175. b | 215. c | 255. c | 295. a |
| 16. a | 56. d | 96. a | 136. a | 176. b | 216. a | 256. d | 296. d |
| 17. a | 57. b | 97. b | 137. b | 177. c | 217. b | 257. c | 297. d |
| 18. a | 58. b | 98. a | 138. d | 178. b | 218. d | 258. b | 298. d |
| 19. b | 59. b | 99. a | 139. a | 179. b | 219. a | 259. b | 299. d |
| 20. c | 60. b | 100. c | 140. a | 180. a | 220. c | 260. a | 300. a |
| 21. b | 61. b | 101. b | 141. b | 181. c | 221. a | 261. a | |
| 22. b | 62. a | 102. c | 142. a | 182. b | 222. b | 262. b | |
| 23. c | 63. d | 103. a | 143. b | 183. a | 223. a | 263. b | |
| 24. c | 64. b | 104. c | 144. d | 184. c | 224. b | 264. a | |
| 25. b | 65. b | 105. b | 145. c | 185. c | 225.d | 265. b | |
| 26. c | 66. a | 106. d | 146. b | 186. c | 226. a | 266. c | |
| 27. b | 67. b | 107. b | 147. b | 187. b | 227. a | 267. c | |
| 28. d | 68. b | 108. c | 148. d | 188. d | 228. d | 268. b | |
| 29. b | 69. c | 109. b | 149. c | 189. b | 229. d | 269. a | |
| 30. b | 70. b | 110. b | 150. a | 190. a | 230. a | 270. a | |
| 31. a | 71. c | 111. d | 151. b | 191. c | 231. c | 271. b | |
| 32. b | 72. a | 112. d | 152. c | 192. c | 232. a | 272. a | |
| 33. d | 73. b | 113. a | 153. c | 193. b | 233. c | 273. d | |
| 34. d | 74. b | 114. b | 154. b | 194. b | 234. a | 274. b | |
| 35. b | 75. b | 115. c | 155. c | 195. a | 235. c | 275. c | |
| 36. b | 76. c | 116.d | 156. c | 196. b | 236. c | 276. a | |
| 37. b | 77. c | 117. d | 157. d | 197. b | 237. b | 277. b |
| 38. a | 78. a | 118. a | 158. a | 198. b | 238. a | 278. a | |
| 39.d | 79. c | 119. d | 159. b | 199. d | 239. a | 279. b | |
| 40. a | 80. c | 120. d | 160. b | 200. d | 240. a | 280. b |
Reference P. P. Mohanty
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