Musculoskeletal online multiple choice questions and answers-5 FABERE (Patrick’s test) , De Quervain’s is a tenosynovitis involving Anatomy online MCQs physiotherapy MCQs

101. What does FABERE (Patrick’s test) test for?
     A) Hip joint dysfunction
     B) Gluteus medius weakness
     C) Femoral nerve irritation
     D) Iliotibial band tightness
102. De Quervain’s is a tenosynovitis involving which two tendons?
     A) Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) and flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)
     B) Abductor pollicis brevis (APB) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)
     C) Flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and palmaris longus (PL)
     D) Extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (APL)
103. Which test helps determine if a patient has an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury?
     A) McMurray’s test
     B) Apley’s grind test
     C) Lachman’s test
     D) Quadriceps active test
104. In a posterior hip dislocation, how will the leg be positioned?
     A) Extended, adducted, internally rotated
     B) Flexed, adducted, internally rotated
     C) Extended, abducted, externally rotated
     D) Flexed, adducted, externally rotated
105. During which type of contraction is a hamstring injury most likely to occur?
     A) Concentric muscle contraction
     B) Eccentric muscle contraction
     C) Isometric contractions
     D) Isotonic contractions
106. An anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) avulsion fracture can be caused by forceful contraction of:
     A) Long head of the biceps femoris
     B) Vastus intermedius muscle
     C) Sartorius muscle
     D) Iliopsoas muscle
107. Writer’s cramp:
     A) Is the least common type of dystonia
     B) Is a task-specific focal dystonia
     C) Improves after attempts to perform a specific task, such as writing
     D) Has a poor prognosis
108. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of continuous passive motion (CPM)
     following total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
     A) The use of CPM has been associated with a decreased incidence of deep vein thrombosis
     B) The use of CPM has not demonstrated any difference in clinical outcomes at 1 year following surgery
     C) The use of CPM prevents the incidence of knee flexion contracture
     D) The use of CPM increases analgesic use in patients who used CPM following TKA
109. Throwing athletes, such as baseball pitchers, are most susceptible to which of the following
     disorders?
     A) Medial epicondylitis
     B) Lateral epicondylitis
     C) Posterior tendon tendonitis
     D) Bicipital tendonitis
110. What is the test to check for contraction of the iliotibial band?
     A) Thomson’s test
     B) Painful arc test
     C) Ober’s test
     D) Yergason’s test
111. Which statement is not true regarding myositis ossifi cans of the hip?
     A) Ultrasound, heat, and massage are conservative treatments for new onset of myositis
     ossificans
     B) Prevention of contractures is important
     C) If possible, surgery should be delayed until the lesion matures at 10 to 12 months
     D) Myositis ossificans is the formation of heterotopic ossification within muscle
112. Female athletes have been shown to:
     A) Have a smaller surface area-to-mass ratio, higher bone mass, and a narrower pelvis as
     compared to males
     B) Have less menstrual irregularities compared to nonathletic females
     C) Have skeletal demineralization which can lead to premature osteoporosis
     D) Have less disordered eating when compared to male athletes
113. What does the anterior drawer test assess in the ankle?
     A) Integrity of calcaneofibular ligament
     B) Integrity of anterior talofibular ligament
     C) Integrity of posterior talofibular ligament
     D) Integrity of deltoid ligament
114. What is the pathophysiology behind avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
     A) Sepsis
     B) Crystalline deposits
     C) Interruption of the vascular supply
     D) Friction
115. All of the following are true about piriformis syndrome except:
     A) The sciatic nerve may be involved because in some individuals the nerve runs through
     the piriformis muscle fibers
     B) Pain may be in lateral buttock, posterior hip and thigh, sciatica-like pain
     C) Pain with flexion, abduction, and external rotation
     D) Pain may be exacerbated by walking up stairs or prolonged sitting
116. What diagnostic test is the “gold standard” for evaluation of the rotator cuff?
     A) Plain x-ray
     B) Physical exam of the shoulder
     C) MRI
     D) Ultrasound
117. Which test is useful in determining adequate blood supply to the hand?
     A) Hoffman’s test
     B) Elson’s test
     C) Phalen’s test
     D) Allen’s test
118. Myofascial pain syndrome is characterized by:
     A) Widespread tenderness
     B) Tender points
     C) Trigger points
     D) No change in muscle tension
119. Cervical disc disease most commonly affects which disc?
     A) C3-C4
     B) C4-C5
     C) C5-C6
     D) C6-C7
120. What are the signs of a positive Trendelenburg’s test?
     A) When the pelvis on the unsupported side stays the same height
     B) When the pelvis on the unsupported side is elevated slightly
     C) When the pelvis on the unsupported side descends
     D) When the pelvis on the supported side stays level

Musculoskeletal online multiple choice questions and answers-5 41 to 60 Questions and Answers

101. A) Flex, abduct, externally rotate the hip, with downward force causing extension is the FABERE test. Anterior hip/groin pain is suggestive of hip joint pathology. Image source: Araim RJ, Aghalar MR, Weiss LD. Neuromuscular Quick Pocket Reference. New York, NY: Demos Medical Publishing LLC; 2012:31.
102. D) De Quervain’s is a tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment of the hand/wrist. The APL and EPB tendons are involved. Finkelstein’s test is usually positive (pain is elicited along the radial aspect of the wrist when the wrist is forced into ulnar deviation with the thumb in a closed fist).
103. C) Lachman’s test is the most sensitive test for ACL injury or laxity. McMurray’s and Apley’s grind tests assess injury to the lateral meniscus and medial meniscus. The quadriceps active test assesses posterior collateral ligament disruption. Image source: Araim RJ, Aghalar MR, Weiss LD. Neuromuscular Quick Pocket Reference. New York, NY: Demos Medical Publishing LLC, 2012:41
104. B) The hip will be flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. The affected leg is shorter because the dislocated femoral head is higher than on the normal side, and the patient will be unable to abduct the affected side.
105. B) During concentric contractions, muscles shorten. In eccentric contractions, muscles lengthen. This usually occurs under tension, and the muscles are more prone to injury. Isometric contractions are static where muscle fibers do not change length. Isotonic contractions involve muscle length changes and encompass both concentric and eccentric contraction.
106. C) An avulsion fracture of the ASIS, especially in an adolescent athlete, often occurs from forceful eccentric contraction of the sartorius or tensor fascia lata muscle with hip extension and knee flexion, as in sprinting or swinging a baseball bat. Surgery may be needed for a displaced apophysis. The rectus femoris muscle is involved in an anterior inferior iliac spine avulsion fracture.
107. B) Writer’s cramp is the most common type of dystonia. Patients with dystonia have simultaneous contraction of agonist and antagonist muscle groups. Initial complaints present as poor coordination, cramping, and aching of the hand with task-specific movements. Prognosis for recovery is good.
108. B) No differences have been found in knee range of motion (ROM), pain scores, or analgesic use in patients who used CPM following TKA. One study did reveal some evidence suggesting that CPM can shorten the length of hospital stay and improve knee flexion at early time points, but does not affect other functional outcomes. The postoperative use of a continuous passive motion machine does not improve outcomes after anterior cruciate ligament tear surgical repair either.
109. A) Medial epicondylitis is associated with pitchers and golfers. Medial epicondylitis is felt to occur from microtears of the common flexor tendon origin or failed healing response that alters normal biomechanics. Lateral epicondylitis is seen in tennis players.
110. C) Ober’s test is used to assess for tensor fascia lata/iliotibial band tightness. Thomson’s test is used to assess for Achilles tendon injury or rupture. Image source: Araim RJ, Aghalar MR, Weiss LD. Neuromuscular Quick Pocket Reference. New York, NY: Demos Medical Publishing LLC; 2012:30.
111. A) Myositis ossificans is the formation of heterotopic ossification within muscle. Prevention of contractures is a priority and can be accomplished by gentle range of motion (ROM). Surgery may be needed if the myositis ossificans causes nerve entrapment, decreased ROM, or loss of function. However, surgery should be delayed until heterotopic ossification matures at 10 to 12 months.
112. C) Female athletes were seen to have more skeletal demineralization, inadequate eating, and menstrual abnormalities. On average, women have a larger surface area–to-mass ratio, lower bone mass, and a wider, shallower pelvis than men.
113. B) Anterior talofibular ligament. To perform this test, stabilize the distal part of the leg with one hand and apply anterior force to the heel with the other hand. This attempts to sublux the talus anteriorly from beneath the tibia when performing the test. Image source: Araim RJ, Aghalar MR, Weiss LD. Neuromuscular Quick Pocket Reference. New York, NY: Demos Medical Publishing LLC; 2012:47.
114. C) Also known as osteonecrosis of the hip or aseptic necrosis of the hip, this condition is characterized by destruction of the femoral head without sepsis. Interruption of the vascular supply is the defining common pathway of the disease process. The most common causes in adults are steroid use or alcohol abuse.
115. C) The provocative test for piriformis syndrome is flexion, adduction, and internal rotation (FAIR), which helps reproduce the symptoms.
116. C) MRI has replaced arthrography as the gold standard test for rotator cuff injuries. It offers high sensitivity and specificity that can be used to identify size, location, and quality of injury. It is relatively expensive and requires lack of motion by the patient in order to avoid artifact.
117. D) Allen’s test is used to check for patent ulnar and/or radial artery circulation to the hand. To perform the test, the examiner manually occludes the patient’s ulnar and radial arteries while the patient makes a fist. As the examiner releases pressure one by one, visible reperfusion of the palm indicates patency of the arteries. This test is usually performed prior to doing a radial artery arterial blood gas to ensure that collateral circulation will be possible should the radial artery become occluded.
118. C) Trigger points can develop owing to a variety of factors, including direct or indirect trauma, overuse, or stress. A trigger point is an area of tautness, which on compression can cause local or referred manifestations. Trigger points can refer symptoms to more remote regions. In contrast, palpation of a tender point causes local discomfort without referred pain.
119. C) C5-C6 is the most common cervical disc disease followed by C6-C7 and then C4-C5.
120. C) The Trendelenburg’s sign indicates gluteus medius weakness. The strength of the gluteus medius (which acts as an abductor) is assessed. If the unsupported side descends, this is a positive test. For example, pelvic drop on the right side in a patient standing on left leg indicates left gluteus medius weakness.

Musculoskeletal online multiple choice questions and answers-5

Musculoskeletal system quiz questions and answers-4

Physiotherapy MCQs| Anatomy

Anatomy online MCQs physiotherapy MCQs