This Physio Fit India Post contains more than 250+Neurological conditions Physiotherapy MCQs MPT Preparation MCQs/Quiz Practice Mode like Medical,Railway,University,GNDU UG & PG exams 2021 Physiotherapy MCQs exams PP Mohanty Book
As an academician the latest trends in the examination system of medical students has always been a fascinating study. Hence I have been following the advent of MCQs & Quiz into the medical examination system with great interest.
Multiple choice questions have evolved from a stage of studied disdain to grudging acceptance to a stage where they have become ubiquitous. Their value in objective testing of the student’s grasp of the subject has been widely acknowledged by academicians the world over. So it is not surprising to see that they are now so entrenched in the system that the Undergraduate medical student become familiar with them from his first year itself and is rid of them only after his super-speciality days are over.👇
As it has always been my endeavour to help students learn the fascinating subject of Neurological conditions from all angles. I scoured the various Websites available for MCQs & QUIZ in Neurological conditions MPT preparation , but the dearth of a single, authentic question bank for MCQs was so glaring that it prodded me to bring out the first Webiste PHYSIOFITINDIA on google of “A Quiz mode Question Bank of Multiple Choice Questions in 200+ Neurological conditions MPT preparation Multiple Choice Questions Physiotherapy MCQs
1. Erb’s palsy affects
a. Lumbar plexus
b. Sacral plexus
c. Brachial plexus
d. Cranial nerves.
2. Pain sensation is carried by
a. Medial spinothalamic tract
b. Lateral spinothalamic tract
c. Posterior column
d. Anterior column
3. Proprioceptive sensation ascend in spinal cord through
a. Posterior column
b. Lateral column
c. Anterior column
d. Antero lateral column
4. Boca’s area of brain is for
a. Speech
b. Hearing
c. Locomotion
d. Vision
5. Bell’s palsy occurs when the injury is
a. Above pons
b. Below pons
c. At zygo mastoid foramen
d. None of the above
6. Dorsal spino-cerebellar tract relays afferent information from muscle spindles from which part of body?
a. Upper region
b. Lower region
c. Trunk
d. None of the above.
7. Which lesion of motor cortex has poorest prognosis
a. Primary cortex
b. Pre motor cortex
c. Internal capsule
d. Supplementary motor cortex.
8. Primary motor cotex area 4 lesion causes paralysis of
a. Contralateral spastic paralysis Upper limb
b. Ipsilateral spastic paralysis Lower limb
c. Contralateral upper limb, upper limb, face.
d. None of the above
9. Premotor area (area 6) lesion result in
a. Slowing of movement
b. Hypertonia
c. Inability to develop appropriate movement
d. a & c
10. Appreciation of localization of light touch is lost when there is injury of
a. Thalamus
b. Brainstem
b. Sensory cortex
c. Peripheral nerve
11. Supplemental motor area lesion will result in
a. Motor apraxia in the absence of motor or sensory impairment
b. Spastic paralysis contralateral
c. Flaccid paralysis of ipsilateral
d. In co-ordination
12. Decusation of cortico-spinal tract occur at
a. Spinal cord
b. Junction of medulla and spinal cord
c. Above medulla
d. Pons
13. Dopamine is synthesized by
a. Globus pallidum
b. Substantia nigra
c. Subthalmaic nucleus
d. Putamen
14. Paleocerebellum chiefly concerned with
a. Information from stretch receptors.
b. Voluntary function
c. Involuntary function
d. Posture
15. Which somatosensory system possess more discriminative properties
a. Spinothlamic
b. Lemniseal
c. Spinocerebellar
d. None of the above
16. Merkel’s disk is for
a. Touch – pressure
b. Touch temperature
c. Two point discrimination
d. Stereognosis
17. Meissner’s corpuscle is for
a. Two point discrimination steriognosis
b. Touch
c. Temperature
d. Pressure
18. Cortical sensation is mediated by
a. Primary somato sensory area
b. Skin receptors
c. Secondary somato sensory cortex
d. Secondary somatosensory cortex and posterior multimodal association area
19. Motor planning and timing is by which lobe of cerebellum
a. Anterior lobe
b. Floculonodular
c. Posterior
d. All of the above
20. Ventral spino cerebellar relieves signals from
a. From lower limb
b. From upper limb
c. Trunk
d. a &b
21. Short term memory is mediated by
a. Limbic system
b. Frontal lobe
c. Hippo campus
d. Parietal lobe
22. In two point discrimination the distance between two points in palm is
a. 5 – 6 mm
b. 7 – 10 mm
c. 10- 15 mm
d. None
23. Short term memory is mediated by
a. Limbic system
b. Frontal lobe
c. Hippo campus
d. Parietal lobe
24. Cortical sensation is mediated by
a. Primary somato sensory area
b. Skin receptors
c. Secondary somato sensory cortex
d. Secondary somatosensory cortex and posterior multimodal association area
25. Patients with spinocerebellar tract lesion will lack
a. Ipsilateral upper limb control
b. Ipsilateral upper limb and trunk control
c. Ipsilateral lower limb & trunk control
d. Contralateral upper limb and lower limb control.
26. Anterior cerebral artery lesion will result in
a. Ipsilateral lower limb sensory loss
b. Ipsilateral upper limb sensory loss
c. Contralateral lower limb sensory loss
d. Both upper limb and lower limb sensory loss
27. Middle cerebral artery lesion will result in
a. Ipsilateral sensory loss of whole trunk
b. Contralateral sensory loss of upper limb, lower limb and face
c. Contralateral sensory loss of upper limb.
d. None
28. Patients with subcortical lesion will have
a. Loss of sensation of upper limb contralateral
b. Loss of sensation of upper limb & lower limb contralateral
c. Loss of sensation upper limb, lower limb & face contralateral
d. Loss of sensation of upper limb, lower limb, trunk & face
29. Parietal lobe lesion exhibit
a. Lack of sensory motor integration
b. Inability to interpret meaningful sensory information
c. Both a & b.
d. None
30. Facilitation of extensor tone against gravity is by
a. Vestibulo spinal tract
b. Rubro spinal tract
c. Reticulo spinal tract
d. Corticospinal tract
31. Motor planning and timing is by which lobe of cerebellum
a. Anterior lobe
b. Floculonodular
c. Posterior
d. All of the above
32. Apraxia is a result of lesion in
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Internal capsule
33. Broca’s area is present in
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Frontal lobe
34. ——————nervous system is/are responsible for bladder evacuation
a. Sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic
c. Sympathetic & parasympathetic
d. Somatic
35. Deep tendon reflex is exaggerated in lesion
a. Upper motor neuron
b. Lower motor neuron
c. Peripheral nerve injury
d. None of the above
36. Clonus is a sign of
a. Lower motor neuron lesion
b. Upper motor neuron lesion
c. Peripheral nerve injury
d. All of the above.
37. In two point discrimination the distance between two points in palm is
a. 5 – 6 mm
b. 7 – 10 mm
c. 10- 15 mm
d. None
38. Patients with spinocerebellar tract lesion will lack
a. Ipsilateral upper limb control
b. Ipsilateral upper limb and trunk control
c. Ipsilateral lower limb & trunk control
d. Contralateral upper limb and lower limb control.
39. Loss of light touch sensation is ——.
a. Atothiguranethesia
b. Dysethesia
c. Anesthesia
d. Aptopogrosia
40. Removal of somato-sensory (SII) area leads to —-
a. Impairment of postural sense
b. Impairment of perception of shape of object
c. Impairment of perception of both shape & texture of object
d. Impairment of perception of texture
41. Stroking across lateral border of foot elicits —-. Reflex.
a. Chaddock
b. Gordon
c. Oppeneim
d. Babinski
42. Facilitation of extensor tone against gravity is by
a. Vestibulo spinal tract
b. Rubro spinal tract
c. Reticulo spinal tract
d. Corticospinal tract
43. Meralgia parasthetica occurs in—————— nerve.
a. Sciatic
b. Superficial peroneal
c. Lateral femoral cutaneous
d. Sural
44. Decerebrate rigidity refers to
a. Sustained contraction and posturing of the trunk and limbs in a position of full flexion
b. Sustained contraction and positioning of the trunk and limbs in a position of full extension
c. Sustained contraction and posturing of the trunk and the lower limbs in extension and the upper limbs in flexion
d. Strong and sustained contraction of extensors muscles of the neck, trunk and four limbs
45. Thermanalgesia is
a. Inability to perceive heat
b. Inability to perceive sensation of heat and cold
c. Inability to perceive pain and temperature
d. None of the above.
46. Features of diabetic neuropathy
a. Mild and chronic
b. b. Affecting both sensory and motor nerve
c. Lower extremity involvement
d. b & c
e. a , b & c
47. The differentiating feature of diabetes from tabes is ————-.
a. Pain
b. Ataxia
c. Loss of tendon reflex in lower limb
d. Tender calf
48. The differentiating feature of poly neuropathy from polio myelitis is
a. Muscle weakness
b. Muscle atrophy
c. No sensory involvement
d. Symmetrical muscle involvement
49. Which is not a feature of myasthenia gravis
a. Muscle weakness
b. Muscle wasting
c. Muscle fatigability
d. Fasciculation
50. MND involves progressive degeneration of ———————
a. Anterior horn cells of in the spinal cord
b. Cells of lower cranial motor nuclei
c. Neurons of the motor cortex and pyramidal tract
d. All of the above
51. Parietal cerebral tumor cause
a. Progressive dementia
b. Contra lateral hemiplegia
c. Falling away of contra lateral outstretched hand
d. Epilepsy with aphasia
52. Apraxia is a result of lesion in
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Internal capsule
53. An uniform resistance at all points of range during relaxed passive movement is known as
a. Clasp knife
b. Lead pipe
c. Cog wheel
d. All of the above
54. The physiological basis of spasticity is
a. Increased fusimotor innervation by dynamic gamma motor neuron
b. Decreased presynaptic inhibition
c. Loss of reciprocal innervation and recurrent inhibition
d. a& b
e. a,b&c
55. The dyskinesia which resembles fragments of purposive movement is
a. Dystonia
b. Chorea
c. Hemiballismus
d. Athetosis
56. Fasciculation is not found in
a. Cervical myelopathy
b. Syringomyelia
c. Stroke
d. Intervertibral disc protrusion
57. A cerebral cortical lesion usually causes
a. Monoplegia
b. Hemiplegia
c. Quadriplegia
d. Crossed hemiplegia
58. Which one among the following is true for polyneuropathy?
a. Asymmetrical loss of reflex
b. Distal tendon reflexes affected before proximal
c. All reflexes are diminished
d. All reflexes are lost
59. Oppenheim’s reflex is
a. Extension of great toe with firm moving pressure on the skin over tibia
b. Stroking on inner border elicits flexor response
c. Stroking outer border of sole elicits ankle dorsi flexion
d. None of the above
60. Dissosiated sensory loss is found in
a. Polyneuropathy
b. Lateral spinalcord lesion
c. Central spinal cord lesion
d. Spinothalamic tract lesion
61. The spinal Segment for ankle jerk is
a. L5
b. L5S1
c. S1S2
d. S1
62. Horner’s syndrome is associated with
a. Myositis
b. Anhydrosis
c. All of them
d. None of them
63. In writer’s cramp
a. An act is impaired
b. Individual movements which compose the act are impaired
c. Similar activities are affected
d. Associated with sensory loss
64. Transient ischemic attack usually defined if neurological deficit recovers with in
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. > 24 hours< 7days.
d. > 7 days.
65. the features of CSF leak is/
a. fluid test positive for glucose
b. salty taste in the mouth of the patient.
c. There may be a fracture petrous skull
d. All of the above
e. a & c
66. Dysdiadokokinesia is a feature of
a. Basal ganglia lesion
b. Cerebellar lesion
c. Cortical lesion
d. None of the above
67. Chorea is due to involvement of
a. Subthalamic nucleus
b. Caudate & putamen
c. Substantia nigra
d. Basal ganglia
68. Worm like involuntary movement is
a. Chorea
b. Dystonia
c. Athetosis
d. Hemiballismus
69. Lesion in one optic tract prouduce—————–.
a. Central scotoma
b. Homonimous hemianopia
c. Bi temporal hemianopia
d. Blindness
70. The hallmark of space occupying lesion in brain are
a. Papilloedema
b. Headache
c. Vomiting
d. b& c
e. a b,& c
71. Sixth nerve palsy can cause
a. Squint
b. Diplopia
c. Blindness
d. Ptosis
72. Rythmic oscillation of the eye is————.
a. Strabismus
b. Opthalmoplegia
c. Nystagmus
d. None of the above
73. Emotional movement spaired with lower part of the face more affected when 7th cranial nerve is injured at
a. Pons
b. Above pons
c. Cerebellopontine angle
d. Facial canal
74. Crocodile tear is feature of—————— cranial nerve palsy.
a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. 6th
d. 7th
75. Which type of current is used usually in Bell’s palsy?
a. Faradic type
b. Interrupted galvanic
c. Russian
d. Tens
76. Climbing up stairs need adequate
a. Gluteus maximus power in stable limb
b. Abductor power in advancing limb
c. Gluteus maximus and glueus medius power in stable limb
d. Gluteus maximum and gluetus medius power in advancing limb
77. The first superficial reflex to recover following SCI is _____________
a. Bulbocavernous
b. Anal
c. Cremastric
d. Abdominal
78. Crede maneuver is when there is
a. Automatic bladder
b. Autonomous bladder
b. Detrusor sphincter
c. Flacid sphincter and spastic detrusor
79. Stroking across lateral border of ankle joint and upto the lateral border of foot elicits
a. Chaddock
b. Gordon
c. Oppenheiem
d. Babinski
80. Removal of somato sensory (SII) will cause————–.
a. Impairment of postural sense
b. impairment of perception of shape of object.
c. Impairment of perception of both shape and texture of object
d. Impairment of perception of texture
81. Which is not feature of cerebellar dysfunction?
a. Bradykinesia
b. Dysmetria
c. Asthenia
d. Hypotonia
82. An uncomfortable hypersensitivity to non noxious stimuli is
a. Parasthesia
b. Hyperesthesia
c. Disesthesia
d. None of the above
83. For two point discrimination on the trunk the points should be
a. 3 to 4mm apart
b. 5 to 10mm apart
c. 10 to 20mm apart
d. >30mm apart
84. Babinski sign normally present up to age
a. Age 5 to 10
b. Age 10 to 15
c. Age 1 to 2
d. Up to 6 months
85. Pain is uncommon in
a. Conus lesion
b. Cauda equina lesion
c. Higher thoracic lesion
d. None of the above
86. There are how many grades in modified Ashworth scale for spasticiy?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
87. What is normal grading of reflex
a. +
b. ++
c. +++
88. Strabismus is
a. Ocular muscle imbalance & weakness
b. Optic nerve damage
c. Abnormal puple only constriction
d. None
89. For near visual acquity the visual acuity chart is kept
a. 26” away
b. 16” away
c. 10” away
d. 40” away
90. The distance for using snellen’s chart is —————.
a. Patient is 10 feet away
b. Patient is 20 feet away
c. Patient is 15 feet away
d. None
91. Prosopagnosia is
a. Inability to recognize familiar objects
b. Inability to identify familiar faces
c. Inability to interpret visual stimuli
d. Inability to remember appropriate colour
92. Astereognosis is indicated if patient is unable to identify
a. 2 or more objects
b. 5 or more objects
c. 3 or more objects
d. 10 or more objects
93. Ability to interpret letter written on the palmar surface of one’s hand is
a. Stereognosia `
b. Ahylognosia
c. Graphesthesia
d. None
94. Loss of hearing for low pitched tones is a feature of
a. Middle ear infection
b. Damage of sensory end organ
c. Damage of cochlear part of 8th nerve
d. Auditory cortical area
95. Semicircular canals are excited by
a. Linear movement
b. Angular movement
c. Acceleration
d. Decelleration
96. Vertigo means a feeling of
a. External world appear to move in arotatory fashion.
b. External world oscillates
c. c. Patient feels his own body moves /rotates
d. a&b
e. a,b&c
97. Which of the following is not a brain stem reflex?
a. STNR
b. ATNR
c. Positive supporting
d. Crossed extension
98. Modified ashworth scale grade 1+ ____________________
a. Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the reminder (less than half ) of the range of motion.
b. Slight increase and tone, manifested by a catch and release and by minimal resistance at the end of the range when the affected part is moved in flexion and extension.
c. More marked increase in tone, but affected part easily flexed
d. Consideration increase in tone, passive movement difficult
99. The prognosis of meningitis depends upon
a. Infecting organism
b. Stage of illness
c. Presence of fracture skull
d. All of the above
e. a& b
100. Trigeminal neuralgia is caused by demyelinatio/degeneration of————
a. Sensory divison of cranial nerve 5
b. Motor division of cranial nerve 5.
c. Sensory division of cranial nerve 6 d .Motor division of cranial nerve6
101. Commonest intra cranial tumor
a. Gliomas
b. Meningiomas
c. Angiomas
d. Neuromas
102. The example of operant/instrumental learning is ___.
a. Assisted exercise with verbal command
b. Constant repeated practice of a task
c. Verbal praise after a well done task
d. Non of the above
103. Learning task without attention is referred as ___
a. Classic condition
b. Trail & Error learning
c. Instrumental learning
d. Procedural learning
104. Declarative learning requires____.
a. Repetition
b. Attention
c. Reward
d. Assistance
105. Backer type of muscular dystrophy is
a. X linked dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. None of them
d. all of them
106. Charcots’s joint is found in
a. Syringomyelia
b. Tabes dorsalis
c. Diabetes myelitis
d. All of the above
e. a &b
107. Which one of the following is known as bell’s palsy
a. 5th Cranial nerve palsy
b. 6thI cranial nerve palsy
c. 7thNone of the above
d. None of the above
108. In poliomyelitis destruction occurs in
a. Muscle
b. Peripheral nerve
c. Anterior horn cells
d. Posterior horn cells
109. Therapeutic modalities that reduce spasticity effectively
a. Ice
b. Weight bearing
c. Sustained stretching
d. All of the above.
110. Spinal muscular atrophy type 4 and 5 presents
a. At infancy
b. Childhood
c. Pre pubescent
d. After adolescence
111. Polymyositis is
a. Infective myopathy
b. Inflammatory myopathy
c. Not myopathy
d. Muscle degenerating disease
112. Which one among the following is milder variety of neuromuscular disease
a. DMD
b. BMD
c. SMA type 1
d. SMA type2
113. Segmental demyelination is the predominant pathology in——————
a. Ischemic neuropathy
b. Nutritional neuropathy
c. Lead poisoning
d. Guillain-bare syndrome
114. The chest wall mobility of parkinson’s disease can be improved by using
_____________
a. PNF upper extremity bilateral symmetrical D2 flexion and extension ans:a
b. PNF upper extremity bilateral symmetrical D1 flexion and extension
c. PNF one upper limb D12flexion and extension and another upper limb D2 flexion and extension and vice versa.
d. PNF one upper limb D2 flexion and extension with lower limb D2 flexion and extension and vice versa.
115. Weber’s syndrome is _____________
a. Occulomotor nerve palsy and contralateral hemiplegia
b. Facial nerve palsy and contralateral hemiplegia
c. Facial nerve, trigeminal nerve palsy and contralateral hemiplegia.
d. Occulomotor abducens and optic nerve palsy and contralateral hemiplegia.
116. Wilson’s disease is
a. Hepato lenticular degeneration
b. Caused by disturbance of copper metabolism
c. Frequently familial
d. All of them
e. a &b
117. Which one of the following technique is used in cerebellar ataxia?
a. Rhythmic initiation
b. Rhythmic stabilization
c. Repeated contraction
d. None of the above
118. Which is not related to favorable prognosis for patient with multiple sclerosis?
a. Onset with only one symptoms.
b. Relapsing – remitting variety
c. Onset before the age of 40.
d. Significant pyramidal and cerebellar signs with involvement at multiple sites in 5 years.
119. The disease nadir for Gullian Barre Syndrome should be within
a. 2 – 4 weeks
b. 2 months
c. One week
d. 4 months
120. Body scheme perceptive disorders occur in
a. Left hemisphere lesion in posterior multi modal association area
b. Right hemisphere lesion in posterior multi modal association area
c. Left hemisphere anterior part
d. Right anterior part
121. Arnold chiari malformation is associated with
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Spina bifida
c. Syringomyelia
d. b&c
122. Cervical rigidity, head retraction, kernig’s sign are feature of
a. Encephalomyelitis
b. Cerebral abscess
c. Meningitis
d. None of the above
123. Post traumatic amnesia and retrograde amnesia are the features of___
a. Cerebral contusion
b. Concussion
c. Cerebral laceration
d. Cerebral compression
124. Paralysis of palate.pharynx and larynx can occur due to lesion of
a. 7th cranial nerve
b. 9th cranial nerve
c. 10th cranial nerve
d. 12th cranial nerve
125. The ————– lesion will not produce hypotonia.
a. Cerebellum
b. Reticular formation
c. Anterior horn cell
d. Substantia nigra
126. The afferent side of spinal reflex arc occurs due to
a. Polyneuritis
b. Peripheral nerve injury
c. Tabes dorsalis
d. Poliomyelitis
127. Language perception disorder is
a. Alexia
b. Aphasia
c. Dyslexia
d. Broca’s aphasia
128. Motor perception disorder is
a. Aphasia
b. Apraxia
c. Alexia
d. Anomia
129. Friedreich’s ataxia is due to a defect in chromosome
a. 9
b. 10
c. 12
d. None
130. Which of the disease improves significantly with dopaminergic medications?
a. Friedreich’s ataxia
b. Huntington’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. None
131. An increase of 5gm/l or higher in the protein contentof CSF may be due to
a. Meningitis
b. Encephalytis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Acute infective polyneuritis
132. An increase in IgG fraction of gamma globulin with a normal total protein content is suggestive of
a. Polyneuropathy
b. Meningitis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosis
d. Multiple sclerosis
133. Sub acute combined cord degeneration is due to
a. Vitamin B deficiency
b. Vitamin B6 deficiency
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Vitamin B2 deficiency
134. Myelomeningocoele is a
a. Swelling containing meninges and CSF
b. Swelling containing myelin sheath, meninges and CSF fluid
c. Swelling containing spinal cord, meningocoele and CSF Fluid
d. None of the above
135. Crossed hemiplegia means ___________
a. Lesion above pontine
b. At level of the pontine
c. Below pontine
d. None of the above.
136. Cerebral irritation may occur in———————-.
a. Concussion
b. Moderate contusion
c. Severe contusion
d. Cerebral compression
137. In flexion and extension the length of the spinal canal varies from
a. 5 – 9 cm
b. 15 – 20 cm
c. 10 – 20 cm
d. None of the above.
138. The blood supply to nerve fibers stops at _____________
a. 15%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. None of the above
139. Lines of pain and clumps of pain relates to involvement of _______________
a. Muscle
b. Nerve
c. Joint
d. Ligament
140. The resting membrane potential varies from __________ MV for most nerves, muscles and glial cells
a. – 40 to – 90
b. – 10 to – 100
c. – 50 to + 90
d. – 40 to + 90
141. Symptoms worst at end of the day related to _______________
a. Acute nerve root involvement
b. Chronic Nerve Root Irritation
c. Muscle ischemia
d. None of the above.
142. Crossed SLR is said to be positive when with unilateral leg pain __________-
a. The SLR on symptomatic leg side produces opposite limb symptom
b. SLR on the sound side produces symptomatic leg’s symptoms.
c. Both side
d. None of the above
143. The number of spinal nerves that emerge from spinal cord
a. 33 pairs
b. 31 pairs
c. 32 pairs
d. None of the above.
144. C1 dermatome is not there because.
a. Dorsal root absent in cervical region
b. Relation of spinal root with vertebral column
c. C1 nerve root is absent
d. C1 dorsal root supply inside the skull.
e. None of the above .
145. The most common nerve used for biopsy in poly neuropathy is ____________
a. Sural nerve
b. Radial nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
146. In Erb’s Palsy , the attitude of the limb is ____________
a. Shoulder add.-Int. rotation-elbow straight
b. Shoulder add.-Ext. rotation-elbow straight
c. Shoulder add.-Int. rotation-elbow flexed
d. Non of the above
147. Ape thumb deformity occurs due to the involvement of _____________
a. Ulna nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Radial nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve e
148. The EMG activity of denervation are the following except
a. Fibrillation potential
b. Positive sharp wave
c. Polyphasic action potential
d. All of the above
149.Increased polyphasic action potential is a feature of
a. Dennervation
b. Polymyositis
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Myopathy
150. Electrodiagnosis of nerve injury should be initiated after ———–.
a. 1 week
b. 2 week
c. 4 week
d. 6 week
151. Exploration after nerve injury is done, if no recovery occurs, after——–months. a. 2-3
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
d. 12
152. Meralgia parasthetica occurs in—————— nerve.
a. Sciatic
b. Superficial peroneal
c. Lateral femoral cutaneous
d. Sural
153. What is the minimum time by which the severed axons begins to send out a greater number of sprouts following injury?
a. 6 hours
b.One day
c. 3 weeks
d.2 weeks.
154. After median / ulnar nerve repair at wrist the extension of wrist can begin from—- –week.
a. 3
b.4
c.6
d.8
155. Secondary nerve repair is done——— weeks after injury.
a.1-3
b. 3-6
c. 6-12
d. None of the above
156. The wrist should be kept flexed up to————— weeks after median and ulnar nerve repair at wrist
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
157. Nerve conduction velocity for upper limb nerves are——————-.
a. 40-50 m/sec
b. 50-70 m/sec
c. 70-90 m/sec
d. 90-110 m/sec
158. Nerve conduction velocity for lower limb nerves are——————-.
a. 30-45 m/sec
b. 40-55 m/sec
c. 55-75 m/sec
d. >75 m/sec
159. Normal sensory action potential is
a. Biphasic
b. Triphasic
c. Tetraphasic
d. Multiphasic
160. The clinical utility of F wave is to know—————-.
a. Conduction of distal part of nerve
b. To test the reflex arc
c. Conduction at proximal part of nerve.
d. Conduction at neuromuscular junction
161. Latency of F wave for upper limb is
a. 10-20 msec
b. 12-20 m sec
c. 20-32 m sec
d. 32-40 m sec
162. Latency of F wave for lower limb is
a. 10-12 msec
b. 12-25 m sec
c. 25-42 m sec
d. 42-55 m sec
163. H reflex is electrical equivalent of
a. Deep tendon reflex
b. Afferent path of reflex arc
c. Superficial reflex
d. Efferent path of reflex
164. Motor end plate of a dennervated muscle persist for
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
165. One year after nerve injury the regenerating axon may have —————% reduction in conduction velocity.
a.15
b.25
c.35
d.45
166. In case of Guillain –bare syndrome partial to complete recovery takes usually————months.
a.Upto3
b. 3-6
c. 6-9
d. 9-12
167. All of the above factors below are true for the dysthetic pain which is a type of peripheral neuropathic pain except
a. Impulse arise from damaged or regenerating nociceptive afferent
b. Burning type of pain
c. Paroxysmal shooting/ stabbing present
d. Pain follow course of a nerve trunk
168. Mechanical allodynia in response to palpation of specific nerve trunk may be due to
a. Discriminated micro neuroma
b. Spread of mechano sensitivity along the nerve trunk
c. All of the above
d. a and b
169. Physical signs of neuropathic pain include
a. Antalgic posture
b. Active and passive movement dysfunction
c. Adverse response to neural tissue
d. All of the above
170. The altered production of the bioactive material by vibration due to driving usually of ………Hz
a. 5Hz
b. 10 Hz
c. 15 Hz
d. 20 Hz
171. Temporary axonal transport decrease can occur at increase of ……….mm hg pressure which can be easily induced by day to day activity
a. 10 mm hg
b. 30 mm hg
c. 50 mm hg
d. 100 mm hg
172. The possible physiological response of neurodynamic test is a. Alteration in intra neural blood flow
b. Axonal transport
c. Sympathetic activation
d. All of the above
e. a & b
173. For uninterrupted blood supply to nerve fibre the pressure gradient should be a. Epineural arteriole > capillary fascicle > epineural venule> tunnel
b. Capillary fascicle > epineural arteriole > epineural venule . tunnel
c. Tunnel > epineural venule . capillary fascicle > epineural arteriole
d. None of the above
174. When the tunnel pressure rises to …….. mm hg venous drainage stops
a. > 10 mm hg
b. 10-20 mm hg
c. 20- 30 mm hg
d. 50 mm hg
175.The causes of subclinical nerve injury are a. Unphysiological movement
b. Abnormal body posture
c. Repetitive muscle contraction
d. All of the above
e. b & c
176. The pain characteristics for intra neural conducting tissue involvement a. Catches and twinges around vulnerable area
b. Burning type
c. Electrical like
d. Lines of pain
e. b & c
f. All of the above
177. Which one among the following is median nerve dominating emphasizing more on shoulder depression and shoulder external rotation
a. ULLT-1
b. ULLT-2
c. ULTT
d. ULTT-3
e. None
178. Which one among the following has ulnar nerve bias?
a. ULTT-1
b. ULTT-2
c. ULTT-3
d. None
179. During SLR addition of hip medial rotation sensitizes a. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
b. Peroneal division of sciatic nerve
c. Sciatic nerve as a whole
d. Sural nerve
180. The best indicator of disc prolapse
a. Bowstring test
b. SLR affected site
c. Crossed SLR
d. Bilateral SLR
181. Ipsilateral paralysis and dorsal column interruption with contralateral loss of pain & temperature
a. Central cord syndrome
b. Anterior cord syndrome
c. Brown sequard syndrome
d. Conus medullaris lesion.
182. Patients with SCI lesion T1 and above lose how much respiration function
a. 60 % to 80 %
b. 40 % to 50 %
c. 20 % to 30 %
d. 80 % to 90 %
183. The features of autonomic dysreflexia are
a. Tachycardia, hypertension, headache
b. Bradycardia, hypertension, headache
c. Pallor, tachycardia, headache
d. All of the above.
184. Which SCI patient among the following will not have an effective cough
a. Lesion below T9
b. Lesion below T6
c. Lesion Below T1
d. Conus medullaris lesion.
185. Who is a functional walker among the following SCI
a. Lesion Below T6
b. Lesion below – T9
c. Lesion below – T10
d. Lesion below – L1
186. The first superficial reflex to recover following SCI is —. a. Bulbocavernous.
b. Anal
c. Cremasteric
d. Abdominal
187. Crede maneuver is clinically indicated in autonomous bladder ,if post-void urine is —.
a .Less than 50-100 cc.
b .Less than 100-120 ccHz.
c .Less than 120-150 cc
d. More than 150 cc
188. A young complete SCI patient is having muscle power Hip flexors G4, Add. G4 , Quad. G 4 & other muscles G0 ; loss of sensation below L3 . Which type of aids will be more appropriate for his ambulation ?
a .Bil. HKAFO with bil. Axillary crutches
b .Bil. KAFO with bil. Axillary crutches
c .Bil. KAFO with bil. Elow crutches
d. Bil. AFO with bil. elbow crutches
189. Which mode of ambulatory device a SCI patient will use for almost normal speed as well as Oxygen uptake ?
a .Bil. AFO with bil. elbow crutches
b .Bil. KAFO with bil. axillary crutches
c . Bil. HKAFO with bil. Axillary crutches.
d. wheel chair.
190. Crede maneuver is clinically indicated autonomous bladder, if post void residual urine is___________
a. Less than 50 – 100 CC
b. Less Than 100 – 120 Cc
c. Less than 120 – 150 CC
d. More than 150 CC
191. Diazepam dosage for SCI
a.Upto 10 mg daily
b. 6-40 mg daily
c. 50-100mg daily
d. None of the above
192. Tenodesis grip is important for————— level SCI patient.
a-.C5
b-.C6
c.-C8
d.-T1
193. Which position is used to prepare SCI patient to assume long sitting position?
a. Prone on hands
b. Prone on elbows
c. Supine on hands
d. Supine on elbows
194. In SCI patient impaired bladder or bowel function or noxious stimulus can produce
a. sympathetic over activity
b. parasympathetic over activity
c. diminished motor activity d .none of the above
195. Armrest in wheelchair can support body weight
a. Above 10%
b. Above 15%
c. Above 6%
d. Above 5%
196. Most ideal management for bladder is
a. Indwelling catheter for ever
b. CIC
c. External catheter
d. Crede’s maneuver
197. Spinal reflexes are integrated at
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months
198. Moro reflex is
a. Abduction, extension & internal rotation of arms
b. Abduction, extension & external rotation of arms
c. Adduction, internal rotation, extension of arms
d. Abduction, internal rotation, flexion of arms
199. Fluctuation of muscle tone is found in —–.
a. Spastic CP
b. Flaccid CP
c. Athetoid CP
d. None of the above
200. The prenatal cause in cerebral palsy is ______________
a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes melitus
c. Torch infection
d. Breech presentation
201. Which of the below is most disabling for standing.
a. Moro
b. Flexor withdrawal
c. Crossed extension
d. Extensor trust
202. Which of the below mentioned primitive reflexes is more disabling for transition from supine to sitting.
a. ATNR
b. STNR
c. TLR
d. Moro
203. which primitive reflex is dangerous for wheelchair bound patients
a. ATNR
b. STNR
c. TLR
d. Crossed extension
204. Brainstem reflexes are integrated in the 1st
a. 2 months of life
b. 4 months of life
c. 6 months of life
d. 8 months of life
205. Association reactions are
a. Spinal reflex
b. Mid brain reflex
c. Brainstem reflex
d. Cortical reflex
206. Righting & equilibrium start developing at the age of
a. 1 year
b. 6 months
c. 1 ½ years
d. 2 years
207. Righting is
a. Midbrain reaction
b. Cortical reaction
c. Cerebellar reaction
d. None of the above
208. While putting the child in prone lying position all the position described below are correct except—————–.
a. Shoulder and hips at right angles in weight bearing position.
b. Knee pointing outward.
c. Shoulder and arms turned inward
d. Hands open and palms down
209. Bunny hopping can be discouraged by a. Providing pron board with caster
b. Providing a tricycle
c. Training bottom shuffle
d. a & b
e. a ,b &c
210. .Normally child can bridge hips at
a. 3 months
b. 3-6 months
c. 5-9 months
d. 7-10 months
211. For children who are excessively extended in supine position, which is the best position to rise them to sitting
a. Train them to come diagonally from supine
b. Train them to come to sitting straight
c. Train them to come from side lying
d. All of the above
212. The treatment for patients with apraxia is to
a. Provide tactile, kinesthetic & proprioceptive input
b. Perform activity in usual environment
c. Use goal directed activity
d. Keep command with minimum wordiness
e. All of the above
213. Chair sitting may be encouraged than floor sitting for all except
a. athetoid
b. With poor sitting balance
c. With tight hamstring
d. For young babies
214. Which one among the following is less effective in improving the weight bearing on affected side in hemiplegia
a. Moving a small trolly backward and forward with affected leg
b. Standing , taking the affected leg backward to cross the leg
c. Stepping backward
d. Walking with arms held back
215. The most common cause of stroke is
a. Ischemia
b. Haemorrhagic
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. Aneurysm
216. In which type of stroke the full extent of insult is apparent from outset.
a. Haemorrhage
b. Ischaemia
c. Aneurysm
d. None
217. Anterior cerebral artery lesion will result in
a. Ipsilateral lower limb sensory loss
b. Ipsilateral upper limb sensory loss
c. Contralateral lower limb sensory loss
d. Both upper limb and lower limb sensory loss
218. Middle cerebral artery lesion will result in
a. Ipsilateral sensory loss of whole trunk
b. Contralateral sensory loss of upper limb, lower limb and face
c. Contralateral sensory loss of upper limb.
d. None
219. The most prominent symptoms following posterior cerebral artery occlusion is
a. Auditory
b. Apraxia
c. Visual
d. Motor
220. Patients with subcortical lesion will have
a. Loss of sensation of upper limb contralateral
b. Loss of sensation of upper limb & lower limb contralateral
c. Loss of sensation upper limb, lower limb & face contralateral
d. Loss of sensation of upper limb, lower limb, trunk & face
221. Parietal lobe lesion exhibit
a. Lack of sensory motor integration
b. Inability to interpret meaningful sensory information
c. Both a & b.
d. None
222. Which is the critical period of stroke rehabilitation
a. Acute stage
b. Intermediate stage
c. Discharge and transfer stage
d. Long term
223. Massed practice is practice time is
a. Equal to rest
b. More than rest
c. Less than rest
d. None
224. Blocked practice is
a. Different tasks done one by one
b. Consistent practice of single task
c. Varying tasks one by one
d. None
225. Crossed hemiplegia occurs when lesion is
a. Above pontine
b. At the level of pontine
c. Below pontine
d. None of the above
226. According to Bobath’s NDT__
a. Postural control must be restored before limb control
b. Limb movements should be practiced before development of axial control
c. Normal movements should be given over abnormal tone
d. Abnormal synergy can be used to re-educate normal movements
227. Which of the following is inhibitory in NDT?
a. Passive weight shifting
b. Active weight shifting
c. Joint traction –approximation
d. Tapping
228. To develop upper extremity control by NDT approach priority is given for ___.
a. Dissociation of scapula from thorax
b. Shoulder movements should be initiated first
c. Distal control has to be developed first
d. None of the above
229. Which of the following is correct regarding motor learning?
a. Absolute errors are smaller for variable practice than constant practice
b. Performance is better in blocked practice during acquisition phase, whereas performance is better in random practice during transfer phase.
c. Distributed practice improves performance is better than massed practice
d. All of the above
230. Infarction in angular gyrus will lead to————— apraxia
a. Anmesic
b. Global
c. Conduction
d. Pair word deafness
231. Motor behaviour follows sensory stimulus is the assumption of———–approach
a. Bobath
b. Brunstorm
c. Rood’s
d. PNF
232. Which neurological approach is exclusively applied for stroke patients? a. Bobath
b. Brunstorm
c. Rood’s
d. Motor learning
233. In which neurological approach the associated movement can be used to facilitate movement
a. Bobath
b. Brunstorm
c. Motor relearning
d. Rood’s
234. Normalize tone ,movement, posture is the assumption of ——————- approach
a. Bobath
b. Brunstorm
c. Rood’s
d. Motor relearning
235. There are —————stages of recovery according to Brunstorm approach
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
236. Key point control are described in ————approach
a. Brunstorm
b. Bobath
c. Knot & Voss
d. Rood’s
237. Interaction of individual, task, environment is described by
a. Knot &VOSS
b. Bobath
c. Brunstorm
d. Car & Sephard
238. Glasgow coma scale has _______________ points
a. 12
b. 10
c. 8
d. 15
239. Severe brain damage scoring in Glasgow coma scale is
a. < 8
b. < 10
c. < 5
d. <15
240. Glassgow coma scale has ————– subcales.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
241. In mild head injury Glasgow coma scale score is
a. 9-12
b. 10-14
c. 13-15
d. 10-15
242. For severe head injury the duration of coma is
a. >3 Hours
b. >6 Hours
c. >12 Hours
d. >24 Hours
243. The cardinal late symptoms of head injury are —————
a. Headache ,vomiting, visual defect
b. Headache, giddiness, mental disturbance
c. Vomiting , mental disturbance, visual defect
d. None of the above
244. Brain death may be
a. Irreversible loss of capacity for conciousness
b. Loss of capacity to breathe
c. Brainstem death
d. Death of cortex
245. We sleep when
a. Cortex relaxes
b. Influence of reticular formation on cortex fails
c. Sleep center in hypothalamus slows down
d. None of the above
246. Sleep apnea can occur due to
a. Lesion in the brainstem
b. Upper air way obstruction
c. Obesity
d. a& b e a,b&c
247. The factor which distinguishes between stroke and epilepsy is ————–
—.
a. Duration of unconsciousness
b. Existence of adequate cause for fainting
c. Epilepsy needs external stimulus to occur
d. Epilepsy is associated with muscular rigidity
248. Catatonia, the result of lesion in basal pons
a. The patients lacks the impulse to move although not paralyzed
b. Patient is paralyzed but able to move to some extent
c. Patient is paralyzed so does not move
d. None of the above.
249. In persistent vegetative state
a. Pons functions spared
b. Pons function lost
c. Brain stem function spared
d. Brain stem function lost
250. Cerebral perfusion pressure CPP is
a. Mean BP + ICP
b. Mean BP – ICP
c. ICP – BP
d. None
251. Which one of the following has minimal underlying brain injury?
a. Subdural haematoma
b. Extra dural haematoma
c. Intra cerebral haematoma
d. None
252. Choose the correct answer regarding recovery following brain injury.
a. Slowly developing lesion causes less functional loss than quickly developed lesion
b. A single larger lesion cause more functional loss than similar lesion produced over time
c. Restricted person recovers better than the enriched person
d. Prognosis of injury to a immature brain is better than matured brain
253. How do drugs help in brain injury?
a. It replaces neurotransmitters
b. Resolves edema and improves blood circulation
c. Prevents effects of toxic substances liberated by the dead cells and blocks the effects of free radicals
d. All of the above
254. Recovery of function following CNS lesion is due to__.
a. Resolution edema and restoration of blood circulation
b. Unmasking of silent zones
c. Neuronal regeneration
d. All of the above
255. When is ICP monitoring indicated
a. If GCS more than 4 midline shift on scan more than 0.5mm &
compression
b. GCS score less than 4, midline shift more than 0.5mm in CT scan & compression present
c. GCS less than no compression or midline shift
d. None
256. Glasgow coma scale score 7 in head injury almost always carry
a. Good prognosis
b. Bad prognosis
c. None of the above.
257. In myopathy which exercise is appropriate
a. Low load less repetition
b. High load high repetition
c. Low load high repetition
d. High load low repetition
258. The physical therapy treatment consideration for early middle stage
Parkinsonism includes
a. Preventive exercise programme
b. Corrective exercise programme
c. Compensatory & corrective exercise programme
d. Dementia monitoring
259. The physiological feedback is———-.
a. Knowledge of result
b. Knowledge of performance
c. Open loop
d. Intrinsic
260. Persistence and severe diplopia can be corrected by
a. Using special glasses
b. Eye exercises
c. Patching one eye
d. By limiting head and neck movement by a soft collar
261. Treatment new action following tendon transfer is based on_____ learning.
a. Classic condition
b. Trail & Error learning
c. Instrumental learning
d. Procedural learning
262. Frenkel’s exercise should be prescribed for————-.
a. Cerebellar ataxia
b. Vestibular ataxia
c. Sensory ataxia
d. All of the above
263. Which PNF technique is advocated for parkinsonism
a. Hold and relax
b. Rhythmic stabilization
c. Rhythmic initiation
d. All of the above
264. For patients with generalized weakness which test is useful
a. Thyroid function
b. Parathyroid function
c. Serum cryoglobulin
d. Serum complement levels
265. Which test is done for myasthenia gravis
a. Spinal fluid anlysis
b. Tensilon
c. Prolonged fasting test
d. None of the above
| 1. c | 41. a | 81. a | 121. d | 161. c | 201. b | 241. c |
| 2. b | 42. a | 82. c | 122. c | 162. d | 202. b | 242. b |
| 3. a | 43. c | 83. d | 123. b | 163. a | 203. c | 243. b |
| 4. a | 44. b | 84. c | 124. c | 164. c | 204. c | 244. c |
| 5. c | 45. a | 85. a | 125. d | 165. b | 205. c | 245. b |
| 6. a | 46. e | 86. d | 126. c | 166. b | 206. b | 246. e |
| 7. c | 47. d | 87. b | 127. b | 167. d | 207. a | 247. b |
| 8. c | 48. d | 88. a | 128. b | 168. d | 208. c | 248. a |
| 9. d | 49. b | 89. b | 129. a | 169. d | 209. e | 249. c |
| 10. c | 50. d | 90. b | 130. c | 170. a | 210. b | 250. b |
| 11. a | 51. c | 91. b | 131. d | 171. b | 211. c | 251. b |
| 12. b | 52. a | 92. c | 132. d | 172. d | 212. e | 252. a |
| 13. b | 53. b | 93. c | 133. c | 173. a | 213. d | 253. d |
| 14. a | 54. e | 94. a | 134. c | 174. c | 214. a | 254. d |
| 15. c | 55. b | 95. b | 135. b | 175. d | 215. a | 255. b |
| 16. a | 56. c | 96. e | 136. b | 176. e | 216. b | 256. b |
| 17. a | 57. a | 97. d | 137. a | 177. b | 217. c | 257. c |
| 18. d | 58. b | 98. a | 138. a | 178. c | 218. b | 258. b |
| 19. c | 59. a | 99. d | 139. b | 179. b | 219. c | 259. c |
| 20. a | 60. c | 100. a | 140. a | 180. c | 220. c | 260. c |
| 21. b | 61. c | 101. a | 141. b | 181. c | 221. a | 261. a |
| 22. b | 62. b | 102. c | 142. b | 182. b | 222. c | 262. c |
| 23. b | 63. a | 103. d | 143. b | 183. b | 223. b | 263. c |
| 24. d | 64. a | 104. b | 144. a | 184. b | 224. b | 264. a |
| 25. b | 65. b | 105. b | 145. a | 185. c | 225. b | 265. b |
| 26. c | 66. b | 106. d | 146. a | 186. b | 226. a | |
| 27. b | 67. b | 107. c | 147. b | 187. a | 227. a | |
| 28. c | 68. c | 108. c | 148. c | 188. d | 228. a | |
| 29. a | 69. b | 109. d | 149. d | 189. d | 229. d | |
| 30. a | 70. e | 110. d | 150. c | 190. a | 230. a | |
| 31. c | 71. b | 111. b | 151. b | 191. b | 231. c | |
| 32. a | 72. c | 112. b | 152. c | 192. b | 232. b | |
| 33. a | 73. b | 113. d | 153. a | 193. d | 233. b | |
| 34. b | 74. d | 114. a | 154. c | 194. a | 234. a | |
| 35. a | 75. b | 115. a | 155. b | 195. a | 235. c | |
| 36. b | 76. c | 116. d | 156. b | 196. b | 236. b | |
| 37. b | 77. a | 117. b | 157. b | 197. a | 237. d | |
| 38. b | 78. b | 118. d | 158. b | 198. b | 238. d | |
| 39. a | 79. a | 119. a | 159. b | 199. c | 239. a | |
| 40. c | 80. c | 120. b | 160. c | 200. c | 240. b |
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